GATE 2012 MECHANICAL PAPER SOLVED

1. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between the nozzle tip and the work surface increases, the material removal rate
a) increases continuously
b) decreases continuously
c) decreases, becomes stable and then increases
d) increases, becomes stable and then increases
ans. d

4. During normalizing process of steel, the specimen is heated
a) between the upper and lower critical temperature and cooled in still air
b) above the upper critical temperature and cooled in furnace
c) above the upper critical temperature and cooled in still air
d) between the upper and lower critical temperature and cooled in furnace
ans. c

7.Stream enters an adiabatic turbine operating at steady state with an enthalpy of 3251.0 kj/kg and leaves as the mixture at 15 kPa with quality (dryness fraction) 0.9. The enthalpies of the saturated liquid and vapor at 15 kPa are hf=225.94kj/kg and hg=2598.3 kj/kg respectively. The mass flow rate of steam is 10 kg/s. Kinetic and potential enregy changes are negligible. The power output of the turbine in MW is
a) 6.5
b) 8.9
c) 9.1
d) 27.0
ans. b

8. The following are the data for two crossed helical gears used for speed reduction:
Gear 1: pitch circle diameter in the plane of rotation 80 mm and helix angle 30′
Gear 2: pitch cirlce diameter in the plane of rotation 120 mm and helix angle 22.5′
If the input speed is 1440 rpm , the output speed in rpm is
a) 1200
b) 900
c) 875
d) 720
ans. b

10. A thin walled spherical shell is subjected to an internal pressure. If the radius of the shell is increased by 1% , with the internal pressure remaining the same, the percentage change in the circumferential (hoop) stress is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 1.08
d) 2.02
ans. d

11. The area enclosed between the straight line y=x and the parabola y= x.x in the x-y plane is
a) continuous and differentiable
b) non-continuous and differentiable
c) continuous and non-differentiable
d) nither continuous nor differentiable
ans. c

13. Which one of the following is NOT a decision taken during the aggregate production planning stage?
a) Scheduling  of machines
b) Amount of labour to be committed
c) Rate at which production should happen
d) Inventory to be carried forward
ans. a

15.A CNC vertical milling machine has to cut a straight slot of 10 mm width and 2mm depth by a cutter of 10 mm diameter between points (0,0) and (100,100) on the XY plane (diemensions in mm). The feed rate used for milling is 50 mm/min. Milling time for the slot (in seconds) is
a) 120
b) 170
c) 180
d) 240
ans. a

16. A solid cylinder diameter 100 mm and height 10 mm is forged between two frictionless flat dies to a height of 25 mm. The percentage change in diameter is
a) 0
b) 2.07
c) 20.7
d) 41.4
ans. d

18. Which one of the following configuration has the highest fin effectiveness?
a) Thin, closely spaced fins
b) Thin , widely spaced fins
c) Thick, widely spaced fins
d) Thick, closely spaced fins
ans. a

21. A circular solid disc of unifrom thickness 20 mm , radius 200 mm and mass 20 kg , is used as flywheel. If it rotates at 600 rpm, the kinetic energy of the flywheel, in joules is
a) 395
b) 790
c) 1580
d) 3160
ans. b

23. For a long slender column of uniform cross section, the ratio of critical buckling load for the case with both ends clamped to the case with both ends hinged is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
ans. c

28.In a single pass drilling operation, a through hole 15 mm diameter is to be drilled in a steel plate of 50 mm thickness. Drill spindle speed is 500 rpm , feed is 0.2 mm/rev and drill point angle is 118′ .Assuming 2 mm clearance at approach and exit, the total drill time (in seconds) is
a) 35.1
b) 32.4
c) 31.2
d) 30.1
ans. a

30. An incompressible fluid flows over a flat plate with zero pressure gradient. The boundary layer thickness 1 mm at a location where the Reynolds number is 1000 .If the velocity of the fluid alone is increased by a factor of 4, then the boundary layer thickness at the same location, in mm will be
a) 4
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 0.25
ans. c

38. In a single pass rolling process using 410 mm diameter steel rollers, a strip of width 140 mm and thickness 8 mm undergoes 10% reduction of thickness. The angle of bite in radians is
a) 0.006
b) 0.031
c) 0.062
d) 0.600
ans. c

39. In a DC arc welding operation, the voltage-arc length characterstic was obtained as Varc=20+5l where the arc length l was varied between 5 mm and 7 mm . Here Varc denotes the arc voltage in Volts. The arc current was varied from 400 A to 500 A . Assuming linear power source characterstic, the open circuit voltage and the short circuit current for welding operation are 
a) 45 V, 450 A
b) 75 V, 750 A
c) 95 V, 950 A
d) 150 V, 1500 A
ans. c


41.Water (Cp=4.18 kj/kg.K) at 80’C enters a counterflow heat exchanger with a mass flow rate of 0.5 kg/s. air(Cp= 1kj/kg.K) enters at 30’C with a mass flow rate of 2.09 kg/s . If the effectiveness of the heat exchanger is 0.8, the LMTD (in ‘C) is
a) 40 
b) 20 
c) 10
d) 5
ans. c


43. A solid circular shaft needs to be designed to transmit a torque of 50 N.m. If the allowable shear stress of the material is 140 MPa, assuming a factor of safety of 2, the minimum allowable design diamter in mm is 
a) 8
b) 16
c) 24
d) 32
ans. b


45. A box contains 4 red balls and 6 black balls. Three balls are selected randomly from the box one after another, without replacement. The probability that the selected set contains one red ball and two black balls is
a) 1/20 
b) 1/12
c) 3/10
d) 1/2
ans. d

47. x+2y+z=4
     2x+y+2z=5
    x-y+z=1
The system of algebraic equations given above has
a) a unique solution of x=1,y=1 and z=1
b) only the two solutions of (x=1,y=1,z=1) and (x=2,y=1,z=0).
c) infinite number of solutions
d) no feasible solution
ans. c

56. choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
Suresh’s dog is the one_____ was hurt in the stampede.
a) that
b) which
c) who
d) whom
ans. a

57. fill in the blank
Despite several ________ the mission succeeded in its attempt to resolve the conflict.
a) attempts
b) setbacks
c) meetings
d) delegations
ans. b

59. which one of the following options is the closest in the meaning of the word given below?
Mitigate
a) Diminish
b) Divulge
c) Dedicate
d) Denote
ans. a

61. Given the sequence of terms AD CG FK JP , the next term is
a) OV
b)OW
c) PV
d) PW
ans. a

VIZAG STEEL MECHANICAL PAPER 2012 SOLVED

1. If a man gains 5% by selling nibs at the rate of 34 a rupee, how many a rupee must he sell them so as to gain 19% ?
a) 33
b) 31
c) 30
d) 29
ans. c

2. Which the lightest gas among the following?
a) Ozone
b) Helium
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
ans. b

3. Virat Kohli has been slated the vice captain of Indian cricket team, he represents which of the following states?
a) Delhi
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
ans. a

4. A ring gauge is used to measure
a) outside diameter but not roundness
b) roundness but not outside diameter
c) both outside diameter and roundness
d) only external threads
ans. c

15. In 3 hours a boat can be rowed 9 km up stream or 18 km down stream . Find the speed of the water in the stream.
a) 1 km/h
b) 1.5 km/h
c) 1.75 km/h
d) 2.25 km/h
ans. b

16. A carnot cycle is having an efficiency of 0.75 . If the temperature of the high temperature reservoir is 727’C , what is the temperature of low temperature reservoir ?
a) 23’C
b) -23’C
c) 0’C
d) 250’C
ans. b

17. How many 10 digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 1 and 2?
a) 10!
b) 10C2
c) 10P2
d) 2^10
ans.d

18.The first pair of words provide a definite relationship. Complete the second pair from the options given, such that the same relationship is maintained?
Rain : Drop :: Snow : ?
a) ice
b) drop
c) flake
d) white
ans. c

19. Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by
a) decreasing the rake angle
b) increasing the depth of cut
c) decreasing the cutting edge
d) increasing the cutting speed
ans. d

20. Two towns A and B are 60 Km apart. A school has to be built to serve 150 students from A and 50 students from B. If the total distance to be travelled by all the students is to be as less as possible, where should the school be built?
a) in town B
b) 45 km from B
c) in town A
d) 45 km from A
ans. c

21. Lumped heat transfer analysis of a solid object suddenly exposed to a fluid medium at a different temperature is valid when
a) Biot number< 0.1
b) Biot number >0.1
c) Fourier number< 0.1
d) Fourier number > 0.1
ans. a

22. The first pair of words provide a definite relationship. Complete the second pair from the options given , such that the same relationship is maintained.
Axe : Woodman :: Awl : ?
a) plumber
b) tailor
c) cobbler
d) painter
ans. c

23. which one of the following nations donated 1 million US dollars to Nalanda International University ?
a) China
b) France
c) UK
d) USA
ans. a

24. Choose the odd one out among the given words:
mirror , glass, reflect, copy , emulate
a) glass
b) reflect
c) copy
d) emulate
ans. c

25. Dew point temperature is the temperature at which condensation begins when the air is cooled at constant
a) volume
b) entropy
c) pressure
d) enthalpy
ans. b

26. A solid cylinder is located at the centre of a hollow sphere . The diameter of the sphere is 1 m, while the cylinder has a diameter and length of 0.5 m each . The radiation configuration factor F11 is
a) 0.375
b) 0.625
c) 0.75
d) 1
ans. b

27. Fill in the blank with the best option
____________ they are poor, they are happy.
a) As
b) Though
c) Because
d) If
ans. a

28. In electro-discharge machining , the tool is made of
a) copper
b) HSS
c) cast iron
d) plain carbon steel
ansl. a

29. Two identical ball bearings P and Q are operating at loads 30 kN and 45 kN respectively. The ratio of the life of bearing P to the life of bearing Q is
a) 81/16
b) 27/8
c) 9/4
d) 3/2
ans. b

30. The crank radius of a single-cylinder I.C. engine is 60 mm and the diameter of the cylinder is 80 mm . The swept volume of the cylinder in 3 cm is
a) 48
b) 96
c) 302
d) 603
ans. d

31. A series of words is given. From the options choose the order of words which makes it meaningful.
1. Travel  2. Destination  3. Payment  4. Berth /seat no.  5. Reservation  6. Availability of berth/ seat
a) 1,2,5,4,3,6
b) 2,6,3,5,4,1
c) 6,2,5,4,3,1
d) 5,3,4,1,6,2
ans. b

32. Find the least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound interest will be more than doubled.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
ans. b

33. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by
a) decreasing center distance between gear pair
b) decreasing module
c) decreasing pressure angle
d) increasing number of gear teeth
ans. b

34. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of 5000A. Assuming effective resistance to be 200 micro-ohms and current flow time of 0.2 second , heat generated during the process will be
a) 0.2 joule
b) 1 joule
c)  5 joule
d) 1000 joule
ans. d

35. In PERT analysis a critical activity has
a) maximum float
b) zero float
c) maximum cost
d) minimum cost
ans. b

36. A bookseller sells a book at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 4% less and sold it for Rs.6 more, he would have gained 18 3/4 % .What did it cost him?
a) Rs. 118
b) Rs  136
c) Rs 142
d) Rs 150
ans. d

37. Choose the antonym of the given word
Talkative
a) babbling
b) silent
c) taciturn
d) vocal
ans. c

38. If 6 men or 9 boys can reap a field in 8 days, in how many days will 8 men and 6 boys can reap the same field ?
a) 3.5 days
b) 4 days
c) 4.5 days
d) 5 days
ans. b

39. Which of the following materials requires the largest shrinkage allowance, while making a pattern for casting?
a) aluminium
b) brass
c) cast iron
d) plain carbon steel
ans. a

40. The mechanism used in a shaping machine is
a) a closed 4-bar chain having 4 revolute pairs
b) a closed 6-bar chain having 6 revolute pairs
c) a closed 4-bar chain having 2 revolute and 2 sliding pairs
d) an inversion of the single slider-crank chain
ans. d

41.A company uses 2555 units of an item anually. Delivery lead time is 8 days. The recorder point ( in number of units) to achieve optimum inventory is
a) 7
b) 8
c) 56
d) 60
ans. c

42. At an examination, in which full marks were 500, A got 10 % less than B, B 25% more than C and C 20% less than D. If A got 360, what percentage marks did D get?
a) 64%
b) 78%
c) 80%
d) 82%
ans. c

43. If we divide 581 in three parts such that 4 times the first may be equal to 6 times the second and 11 times the third, then the three parts are in the ratio of
a) 4:6:11
b) 11: 6: 4
c) 1/4:1/6: 1/11
d) none of these
ans. c

44. The shear strength of a sheet metal 300 Mpa The blanking fore required to produce a blank of 100 mm diameter from a 1.5 mm thick sheet is close to
a) 45 kN
b) 70 kN
c) 141 kN
d) 3500 kN
ans. c

45. Moist air at a pressure of 100 kPa is compressed to 500 kPa and then cooled to 35′ C in an aftercooler. The air at the entry to the aftercooler is unsaturated and becomes just saturated at the exit of he aftercooler . The saturation pressure of water at 35’C is 5.628 kPa. The partial pressure of water vapour (in kPa) in the moist air entering the compressor is closest to
a) 0.57
b) 1.13
c) 2.26
d) 4.52
ans. b

46. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at a temperature of 500k (gas constant of neon is 0.4210 kJ/kgK)?
a) 492 m/s
b) 460 m/s
c) 592 m/s
d) 543 m/s
ans. d

47. Complete the series with the correct alternative from the options given:
5,10, 13, 26, 29, 58, 61, ___
a) 122
b) 125
c) 128
d) 64
ans. a

48. Fill in the blank with the best option.
Ask him______ he liked it.
a) though
b) that
c) if
d) when
ans. c

49. A 2 kW, 40 litre water heater is switched on for 20 minutes. The heat capacity Cp for water is 4.2kJ/kg-k. Assuming all the electrical energy has gone into heating the water , increase of the water temperature in degree centigrade is
a) 2.7
b) 4.0
c) 14.3
d) 25.25
ans. c

51. In which state of India was the first paper mill was started?
a) West Bengal
b) Bihar
c) Orissa
d) Assam
ans. a

52. Two helical tensile springs of the same material and also having identical mean coil diameter and weight, have wire diameters d and d/2. The ratio of their stiffness is
a) 1
b) 4
c) 64
d) 128
ans. c

53. The maximum velocity of a one-directional incompressible fully developed viscous flow, between two fixed parallel plates, is 6 m s-1 . The mean velocity of the flow is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
ans. c

54.The speed of a large plane is 1040 km/hr and the speed of a small plane is 416 km/hr.If the small plane files 450 km, how much distance would the large plane have flown during the same time?
a) 1080 km
b) 1125 km
c) 1180 km
d) 1200 km
ans. b

55. Planning commission of India on 18th January 2012 approved Rudrasagar development scheme. The scheme is related to which of the following state?
a) Tripura
b) assam
c) Manipur
d) Sikkim
ans. a

56. A sum of money was divided amongst 4 persons. Three of them received 1/8,2/5, and 3/16 of the whole respectively, while the forth received Rs.46 . What was the original sum?
a) Rs. 92
b) Rs. 138
c) Rs 144
d) Rs 160
ans. d

58. The material property which depends only on the basic crystal structure is
a) fatigue strength
b) work hardening
c) fracture strength
d) elastic constant
ans. a

59. A carnot cycle refrigerator operates between 250 K and 300 K. Its coefficient of performance is
a) 6.0
b) 5.0
c) 1.2
d) 0.8
ans. b

60. While cooling a cubical casting of side 40 mm undergoes 3% ,4%, and 5% volume shrinkage during liquid state, phase transtition and solid state, respectively. The volume of the metal compensated from the riser is
a) 2%
b) 7%
c) 8%
d) 9%
ans.b

61. At a production machine, parts arrive according to a Possion process at the rate of 0.35 parts per minute. Processing time for parts have exponential distribution with mean of 2minutes. when is the probability that a random part arrival finds that there are already 8 parts in the system ( in machine + in queue)?
a) 0.0247
b) 0.0576
c) 0.0173
d) 0.082
ans. c

62. Arrange the words to make a meaningful sentence
P: been  Q: I’ve  R:Paris  S:to  T: before
a) SRQPT
b) RTQPS
c) QPSRT
d) QPTSR
ans. c

63.A carriage driving in a fog passed a man who was walking at 3km/h in the same direction. He could see the carriage for 4 minutes and it was visible to him upto 100 m. What is the speed of the carriage?
a) 3.5 km/h
b) 4 km/h
c) 4.25 km/h
d) 4.5 km/h
ans. c

64. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
a) very high pouring temperature of the metal
b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal
d) improper alignment of the mould flasks
ans. b

66. Choose the synonym of the given word
Hackneyed
a) carriage
b) stale
c) cart
d) fresh
ans. b

67. A rotating disc of 1m diameter has two eccentric masses of 0.5 kg each of radii of 50 mm and 60 mm at angular of 0′ and 150′, respectively. A balancing mass of 0.1 kg is to be used to balance the rotor. What is the radial position of the balancing mass?
a) 50 mm
b) 120 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 280 mm
ans. c

68. which theory of failure will you use for aluminium components under steady loading?
a) principal stress theory
b) principal strain theory
c) strain energy theory
d) maximum shear stress theory
ans. a

69. Which of the following engineering materials is the most suitable candidate for hot chamber die casting?
a) low carbon steel
b) titanium
c) copper
d) tin
ans. b

70. The scientist who first discovered that the earth revolves round the sun was
a) Newton
b) Copernicus
c) Dalton
d) Einstein
ans. b

71. Quality screw threads are produced by
a) thread milling
b) thread chasing
c) thread cutting with single point tool
d) thread casting
ans. b

72. India become free from bird flu, ____.
a) H5N1
b) H4N1
c) H5N2
d) H3N3
ans. a

73. What is the smallest number that must be added to 6156 to make it a perfect square?
a) 244
b) 88
c) 90
d) 85
ans. d

74. A can do a piece of work in 16 days, B in 24 days. With the help of a boy they finish it in 8 days. The boy will do it alone in
a) 32 days
b) 40 days
c) 48 days
d) 96 days
ans. c

75. Choose the correct spelling
a) guard
b) gaurd
c) goard
d) guerd
ans. a

76.In India, which of the following has the largest area under cultivation?
a) wheat
b) cotton
c) rice
d) jute
ans. c

77. What is the HCF and LCM of 1/2 and 5/8?
a) 1/8
b) 2/5
c) 5/8
d) 5/16
ans. a

78. Poft Blair is located on which of the following Islands?
a) North Andaman
b) Middle Andaman
c) South Andaman
d) none of these
ans. c

79. Two pipes of inner diameter 100 mm and outer diameter 110mm each joined by a flash butt welding using 30V power supply. At the interface , 1 mm of material melts from each pipe which has a resistance of 42.4 ohm.If the unit melt energy is 64.4 MJm-3, then the time required for welding in seconds is
a) 1
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20
ans. d

80. In ECM , the material removal is due to
a) corrosion
b) erosion
c) fusion
d) ion displacement
ans. d

81. If  Rs.1200 maintains a family of 4 persons for 30 days, how long will Rs2040 maintain a family of 6 persons?
a) 28 days
b) 30 days
c) 32 days
d) 34 days
ans. d

82. For typical sample of ambient air ( at 35’C , 75% relative humidity and standard atmospheric pressure) , the amount of moisture in kg per kg of dry air will be approximately.
a) 0.002
b) 0.027
c) 0.25
d) 0.75
ans. b

83.In orthogonal turning of a low carbon steel bar of diameter 150 mm with uncoated carbide tool, the cutting velocity is 90m/min .The feed 0.24mm/rev and the depth of cut is 2 mm. The chip thickness obtained is 0.48 mm. If the orthogonal rake angle is zero and the principal cutting edge angle is 90′, the shear angle is degree is
a) 20.56
b) 26.56
c) 30.56
d) 36.56
ans. b

85. A static fluid can have
a) non-zero normal and shear stress
b) negative normal stress and zero shear stress
c) positive normal stress and zero shear stress
d) zero normal stress and zero shear stress
ans. c

86.In a machine shop , pins of 15 mm diameter are produced at rate of 1000 per month and the same is consumed at a rate of 500 per month. The production and consumption continue simultaneously till the maximum inventory is reached. Then inventory is allowed to reduce zero due to consumption.The lot size of production is 1000. If backlog is not allowed, the maximum inventory level is
a) 400
b) 500
c) 600
d) 700
ans. b

87. An ideal air standard Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 8.5. If the ratio of the specific heats is 1.4, then what is the thermal efficiency (in percentage ) of the Otto cycle ?
a) 57.5
b) 45.7
c) 52.5
d) 95
ans. a

88. Ram ranks sixteenth from the top and fifteenth form the bottom in a certain examination. How many students are there in the class?
a) 30
b) 31
c) 32
d) 33
ans. a

89. Find the missing letters of the series
cab_c_bdca_d_abd
a) d,a,b,c
b) c,c,a,a
c) b,c,d,a
d) a,b,c,d
ans. a

90. A single-point cutting tool with 0.12 rake angle is used to machine a steel work-piece. The depth of cut , i.e. uncut thickness is 0.81 mm. The clip thickness under orthogonal machining condition is 1.8 mm . The shear angle is approximately?
a) 0.22
b) 0.26
c) 0.56
d) 0.76
ans. b

91. The area moment of inertia of a square of size 1 unit about its diagonal is
a) 1/3
b) 1/4
c) 1/12
d) 1/6
ans. c

92. In a pulverized-fuel-fired large power boiler, the heat transfer from the burning fuel to the walls of the furnace is
a) by conduction only
b) by convention only
c) by conduction and convention
d) predominantly by radiation
ans. c

93. A train 130 m long travelling at 45 km/h takes 30 seconds to cross a bridge. The length of the bridge is
a) 245 m
b) 275 m
c) 225 m
d) 195 m
ans. a

94. Identify the type of word/s that is/are underlined
she ran along the corridor and up the stairs to the second floor.
a) verb
b) conjuction
c) prepositon
d) adverb
ans. c

96. A steel bar of 40 mm X 40 mm square cross-section is subjected to an axial compressive load of 200 kN . If the length of the bar is 2 m and E = 200 GPa, the elongation of the bar will be
a) 1.25 mm
b) 2.70 mm
c) 4.05 mm
d) 5.40 mm
ans. a

97. Indravati hydroelectric project belongs to which state?
a) Tamil nadu
b) Orissa
c) Karnataka
d) Andra Pradesh
ans. b

98. Where is the Vallabhbhai Patel Stadium located?
a) Kolkata
b) Mumbai
c) Chennai
d) Delhi
ans. b

99. Light year is a unit of
a) time
b) velocity
c) distance
d) speed
ans. c

100. Maximum shear stress developed on the surface of a solid circular shaft under pure torsion is 240 MPa. If the shaft diameter is doubled then the maximum shear stress developed corresponding to the same torque will be
a) 120 MPa
b) 60 MPa
c) 30 MPa
d) 15 MPa
ans. c

101. In a CNC program block , N002 G02 G91 X40 Z40 …, G02 AND G91 refer to
a) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and incremental diemension
b) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and absolute diemension
c) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental diemension
d) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute diemension
ans. b


102. In electro discharge machining (EDM) , if the thermal conductivity of tool is high and the specific heat of work piece is low, then the tool wear rate and material removal rate are expected to be respectively
a) high and high 
b) low and low
c) high and low 
d) low and high 
ans. a


103. A correctly designed convergent-divergent nozzle working at a designed load is 
a) always isentropic
b) always chocked
c) never chocked 
d) never isentropic
ans. b

104. Choose the synonym of the given word.
Quota
a) reserved
b) seat
c) allocation
d) marks
ans. c

105. A clutch has outer and inner diameters 100 mm and 40 mm respectively .Assuming a uniform pressure of 2MPa and coefficient of friction of liner material 0.4, the torque carrying capacity of the clutch is
a) 148 Nm
b) 196 Nm
c) 372 Nm
d) 490 Nm
ans. b

106. An item can be purchased for Rs. 100. The ordering cost is Rs. 200 and the inventory carrying cost is 10% of the item cost per annum. If the annual demand is 4000 units, then economic order quantity (in units) is
a) 50
b) 100
c) 200
d) 400
ans. a

107. A project has six activities (A to F) with respective activity duration’s 7,5,6,6,8,4 days. The network has three paths A-B, C-D, and E-F. All activities can be crashed with the same crash cost per day. The number of activities that need to be crashed to reduce the project duration by 1 day is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
ans. c

108. Choose the correct spelling.
a) guage
b) gage
c) gauge
d) gaige
ans.c

109. In a certain code LIBERATE is written as 56423172. How TRIBAL will be written in this code?
a) 736415
b) 673451
c) 476315
d) 743615
ans. a

110. A lead-screw with half nuts in a lathe, free to rotate in both directions has
a)V-threads
b) witworth threads
c) buttress threads
d) acme threads
ans. d

111. In how many ways 10 books be arranged on a shelf so that a particular pair of books shall be never together?
a) 8!
b) 9!
c) 2X9!
d) 8X9!
ans. d

114. Arrange the words to make a meaningful sentence.
P: handed  Q:she  R:the S:package T:me
a) RSQPT
b) TPRSQ
c) RSPQT
d) QPTRS
ans. d

111. 0.9 percent can be expressed as
a) 0.9
b) 0.09
c) 0.009
d) none of these
ans. c

116. A 4 mm thick sheet is rolled with 300 mm diameter rills to reduce thickness without any changes in its width. The friction coefficient at the work-roll interface is 0.1. The minimum possible thickness of the sheet that can be produced in a single pass is
a) 1.0  mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 2.5 mm
d) 3.7 mm
ans. c

117. Production Flow Analysis (PFA) is a method of identifying part families that uses data from
a) engineering drawing
b) production inventory
c) bill of materials
d) route sheets
ans. c

118. Zojila pass is in which state?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Sikkim
c) Uttarakand
d) Assam
ans. a

119. Which type of motor is NOT used in axis or spindle derives of CNC machine tools?
a) induction motor
b) DC servo motor
c) stepper motor
d) linear servo motor
ans.a

120. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500 mm and thickness 10 mm is subjected to an internal pressure of 5MPa. The average circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is
a) 100
b) 250
c) 500
d) 1000
ans. b

121. Which letter group is different from the other three?
a) AERIE
b) ADEUX
c) ADMIT
d) ABUSE
ans. a

122. What is the approximate percentage change in the life of a tool with zero rake angle used to orthogonal cutting when its clearance angle is change from 10′ to 7′?
a) 30 % increase
b) 30 % decrease
c) 70 % increase
d) 70 % decrease
ans. b

123. A wine merchant buys 10 casks of wine. If he sells it at Rs 5 a liter, he loses Rs 200 and if he sells at Rs 6 a liter he gains Rs 150 . Find the number of liters is a cask.
a) 25
b) 32
c) 35
d) 40
ans. c

124. The average age of 600 students of a school is 10.75 years.With enrolment of 40 new students, the average age is reduced to 10.4375 years. Find the aver age of the new students.
a) 5.5 year
b) 5.75 year
c) 6.8 year
d) 7.25 year
ans. b

125. A series of words is given. Fromt he options the order of words which makes it meaningful.
1.protect  2.pressure 3.relief  4. rain  5. flood
a) 2,4,3,1,5
b) 2,5,4,1,3
c) 2,4,5,1,3
d) 3,2,4,5,1
ans. c

126. Dandi March was from the
a) Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi
b) Dandi to Sabarmati Ashram
c) Bardoli to Dandi
d) Sabarmati to bardoli
ans. a

127. A gas having a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient , when throttled , will
a) become cooler
b) become warmer
c) remain at the same temperature
d) either be cooler or warmer depending on the type of gas
ans. b

128. Find out the missing term in the number series.
 2,6,12,20,?, 42, 56,72
a) 24
b) 30
c) 32
d) 36
ans. b

129. A 600 mm X 30 mm flat surface of a plate is to be finish machined on a shaper. The plate has been fixed with the 600 mm side along the tool travel direction. If the tool over-travel at each end of the plate is 20 mm , average cutting speed is 8m/min , feed rate is 0.3 mm/stroke and the ratio of the return time to cutting time of the tool is 1:2 , the time required for machining will be
a) 8 min
b) 12 min
c) 16 min
d) 20 min
ans. b

130. Fill in the blank with the best option.
I don’t have _______ furniture.
a) many
b) much
c) lot
d) few
ans. b

132. In an MRP system, component demand is
a) forecasted
b) established by the master production schedule
c) calculated by the MRP system from the master schedule
d) ignored
ans. c

133. Vehicle manufacturing assembly line is an example of
a) product layout
b) process layout
c) manual layout
d) fixed layout
ans. c

134. The percentage of carbon in Grey cast iron is in the range of
a) 0.25 to0.75 percent
b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent
c) 3 to 4 percent
d) 8 to 10 percent
ans. c

135. A 200 X100 X 50 mm steel block is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 15 MPa. The Young’s modulus and Poission’s ratio of the material are 200 Gpa and 0.3 respectively. The change in the volume of the block is
a) 85
b) 90
c) 100
d) 110
ans. a

136. Which of the following forecasting methods takes a fraction of forecast error into account for the next period forecast?
a) simple average method
b) moving average method
c) weighted moving average method
d) exponential smoothening method
ans. d

137. which set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given word shall complete it?
__ST_OL_GY
a) ORA
b) RAO
c) ARO
d) AOR
ans. c

138. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ” APPREHENSION” each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
ans. b

139. The effective number of lattice points in the unit cell of simple cubic ,body centered cubic, and face centered cubic space lattices, respectively are
a) 1,2,2
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 2,4,4
ans. b

140. Choose the antonym of the given word.
Gallant
a) courageous
b) weak
c) cowardly
d) majestic
ans. c

142. Two plates of the same metal having equal thickness are to be butt welded with electric arc. When the plate thickness changes, welding is achieved by
a) adjusting the current
b) adjusting the duration of current
c) changing the electrode size
d) changing the electrode coating
ans. c

143. A venturimeter of 20 mm throat diameter is used to measure the velocity of water in a horizontal pipe of 40 mm diameter. If the pressure difference between the pipe and throat sections is found to be 30KPa then , neglecting frictional losses , the flow velocity is
a) 0.2 m/s
b) 1.0 m/s
c) 1.4 m/s
d) 2.0 m/s
ans. d

144. Choose the odd one out among the given words
drowse, slumber, catnap, snore, doze
a) drowse
b) catnap
c) snore
d) doze
ans. c

145. Cars arrive at a service station according to Poisson’s distribution with a mean rate of 5 per hour. The service time per car is exponential with a mean of 10 minutes. At steady state, the average waiting time in the queue is
a) 10 mins
b) 20 mins
c) 25 mins
d) 50 mins
ans. d

146. Union Rural development Ministry of India roped in which National award actor as the brand ambassador for improving the state of sanitation in the country?
a) Shabana Azmi
b) Ananya Chatterjee
c) Vidya Balan
d) Konkana Sen Sharma
ans. c

147. Which festival is celebrated in North India when Pongal is celebrated in Tamil Nadu?
a) Holi
b) Makar Sankranthi
c) Diwali
d) Dushera
ans. b

148. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat from a high temperature source at a rate of 10 kw and rejects heat to a sink at a rate of 50 kw. The entire work output of the heat engine is used to drive a reversible heat pump operating between a set of independent isothermal heat reservoirs at 17′ C and 75’C . The rate (in kw) at which the heat pump delivers heat to its temperature sink is
a) 50
b) 250
c) 300
d) 360
ans.

149. If SINGLE is coded as 66, what code is given to WINKLE?
a) 76
b) 66
c) 78
d) 74
ans. d

150. Who among the following Indian women wrestler created a history by qualifying for London Olympics?
a) Sunita Kumari
b) Geeta Kumari
c) Namrata Gill
d) Swetha Pandit
ans. b

151. The crystal structure of austenite is
a) body centered cubic
b) face centered cubic
c) hexagonal closed packed
d) body centered tetragonal
ans. b

152. Alex Paul Menon, who was abducted by Maoists on 21 April 2012 is the District Magistrate of which district of Chattisgarh?
a) Sukma
b) Mungeli
c) Surajpur
d) Balrampur
ans. a

154. Minimum shear strain in orthogonal turning with a cutting tool of zero rake angle is
a) 0.0
b) 0.5
c) 1.0
d) 2.0
ans. d

154. The diemensional limits on a shaft of 25h7 are
a) 25.000,25.0121 mm
b) 25.000, 24.979 mm
c) 25.000, 25.007 mm
d) 25.000, 24.993 mm
ans. b

156. Select the related number from the given alternatives
123 : 132 :: 235 😕
a) 235
b) 253
c) 352
d) 252
ans. b

157. Express 0.99 as a fraction in its lowest term
a) 9/10
b) 9/100
c) 9/99
d) 1/11
ans. d

158. Which one of the following is a solid state joining process?
a) gas tungsten arc welding
b) resistance spot welding
c) friction welding
d) submerged arc welding
ans. c

159. How many bones are there in an adult human being
a) 210
b) 206
c) 260
d) 300
ans. b

160. In how many ways can a party of 4 men and 4 women be seated at circular table so that no two women are adjacent?
a) 24X24
b) 2X4!
c)  144
d) 4^4
ans. c

161. Choose the synonym of the given word
Lurid
a) shocking
b) clear
c) glowing
d) angry
ans. a

162. which one of the following state governments launched Panch Parmeshwar scheme?
a) M.P
b) Bihar
c) U.P
d) Kerala
ans. a

163. Which one of the following is a criterion in the design of hydrodynamic bearings?
a) sommerfled number
b) rating life
c) specific dynamic capacity
d) rotation factor
ans. a

164. Twenty full depth involute profiled 19-tooth pinion and 37-tooth gear are in mesh. If the module is 5 mm , the center distance between the gear pair will be
a) 140 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 280 mm
d) 300 mm
ans. a

165. The values of enthalpy of steam at the inlet and outlet of a steam turbine in a Rankine cycle are 2800 kj/kg and 1800 kj/kg respectively. Neglecting pump work , the specific steam consumption in kg/kw-hr is
a) 3.60
b) 0.36
c) 0.06
d) 0.01
ans. a

166. Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by
a) milling
b) shaping with rack cutter
c) shaping with pinion cutter
d) hobbing
ans. c

167. In the window air conditioner , the expansion device used is
a) Capillary tube
b) thermostatic expansion valve
c) automatic expansion valve
d) float valve
ans. a

168. A certain sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at simple interest . It will treble itself in
a) 12 years
b) 16 years
c) 24 years
d) 32 years
ans. b

169. Find the missing letters of the series :
AYBZC, DWEXF,GUHVI, JSKTL, ?
a) MQORN
b) QMONR
c) MQNRO
d) NQMOR
ans. b

170. Choose the antonym of the given word.
Limpid
a) liquid
b) opaque
c) transperent
d) solid
ans. b

171. which among the following soils is rich in minerals?
a) black soil
b) alluvial soil
c) red soil
d) laterite soil
ans. a

172. In how many ways a committee of 5 members can be selected from 6 men and 5 ladies, consisting of 3men and 2 ladies
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 200
ans. d

173. In a air

GENCO PREVIOUS PAPERS 2012 SOLVED

TECHNICAL SECTION 


2. The two-port parameter h21 is called
a) Open-circuit output admittance
b) Short-circuit input impedance
c) Open-circuit reverse voltage gain
d) Short-circuit forward current gain
ans. d

9.In a thermal power plant ash is collected in
a) mills
b) hoppers
c) bunkers
d) boilers
ans. b

10.The average life of neutrons after they decay is
a) 1 sec
b) 10 sec
c) 100 sec
d) 1000 sec
ans. d

11. The operating time of instantaneous relay is
a) 0.001 sec
b) 0.01 sec
c) 0.1 sec
d) 1 sec
ans. c

13. Stringing chart is useful for
a) the design of tower
b) the design of insulator string
c) finding the sag in the conductor
d) finding the distance between the towers
ans. c

14. The self GMD method is used to evalute
a) inductance
b) capacitance
c) inductance and capacitance
d) resistance
ans. a

18. Auto reclosing is used in case of
a) lighting arrester
b) bulk oil C.B.
c) air blast C.B
d) minimum oil C.B.
ans. c

20. A 50Hz , 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA , 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H= 4 KW sec/KVA . The K.E. is stored in the rotor  at synchronous speed is
a) 80 KJ
b) 80 MJ
c) 40 MJ
d) 20 MJ
ans. b

23. A 36-slot, 4-pole , dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively
a) 15,13
b) 19,17
c) 21, 19
d) 23, 21
ans. b

25. A single phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be
a) 0.52
b) 0.24
c) 0.62
d) 0.36
ans. a

29. Two synchronous generators G1,G2 are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift par of KVAR from G2 to G1 , while keeping terminatl voltage fixed, the following action must be done
a) Raise If1 and lower If2
b) Lower If1 and Raise If2
c) Lower If1 or raise If2
d) Raise If1 or lower If2
ans. a

30 . A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000 , CMRR: 80 dB . The common mode gain is given by
a) 1
b)1/2
c) 2
d) 250
ans. c

31. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The output power will be
a) 2 milliwatts
b) 6 microwatts
c) 2 watts
d) 120 microwatts
ans. c

32. The voltage gains of the amplifier with the without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be
a) 40%
b) 80 %
c) 4 %
d) 8 %
ans. c

34. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec . Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is
a) 16.67 MHz
b) 17.6 MHz
c) 12.67 MHz
d) 11.76 MHz
ans. d

35. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is
a) 0.392
b) 1/256
c) 1/255
d) a and b both
ans. a

37. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?
a) Bistable
b) Monostable
c) Astable
d) Schmitt trigger
ans. d

38. The alternating voltage across and current through a circuit are represented by (a+jb) and (c+ jd) respectively. The power in watts is given by
a) ac-bd
b) bc+ad
c) ac+bd
d) bc-ad
ans. c

40. In a balanced star network the measured resistance between any two terminals is 6 Ohm . The resistance between any two terminals of the equivalent delta network is
a) 18 ohm
b) 6 ohm
c) 4.5 ohm
d) 9 ohm
ans. a

41. Kirchoff’s current law is based on the law of
a) conservation of energy
b) conservation of charge
c) conversation of momentum
d) conversation of mass
ans. b

47. A transfer function has a second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator
a) the system has two zeros at the origin
b) the system has two finite zeros
c) the system has two zeros at infinity
d) the system has one zero at infinity
ans. c

48. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
a) principle of superposition
b) principle of homogeneity
c) both a and b above
d) neither a and b above
ans. d

50. Load flow studies involve solving simultaneous
a) linear algebraic equations
b) non linear algebraic equations
c) linear differential equations
d) non linear differential equations
ans. b

51. A 12 bus power system has 3 voltage controlled buses. The dimensions of Jacobian matrix will be
a) 21×21
b) 21×19
c) 19×19
d) 19×21
ans. a

54. Bundled conductors are used for EHV transmission lines primarily for reducing the
a) Surge impedance of the line
b) I2R losses
c) voltage drop across the line
d) corona loss
ans. d

55. If all the sequence voltage at the fault point in a power system are equal, then the fault is
a) three phase fault
b) line to ground fault
c) line to line fault
d) double line to ground fault
ans. d

56. Severe over voltages are produced during arcing faults in a power system with the neutral
a) isolated
b) solidly earthed
c) earthed through a low resistance
d) earth through an inductive coil
ans. a

58. A 200V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10A. Its armature winding resistance is 2 Ohm. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected is series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is
a) 32 Ohm
b) 36 Ohm
c) 38 Ohm
d) 40 Ohm
ans. b

59. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4th full load. The ratio of its iron loss and full load copper loss, is
a) 4/3
b) 16/9
c) 9/16
d) 3/4
ans. c

63. The rotor impedance of a slip ring induction motor is (0.1 + j0.6) Ohm/ph. The resistance /ph to be inserted into rotor to get maximum torque at starting should be
a) 0.1 Ohm
b) 0.3 Ohm
c) 0.4 Ohm
d) 0.5 Ohm
ans. d

67. A 200V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 microsec and turned off for 10 microsec. The output voltage will be
a) 200 V
b) 150 V
c) 175 V
d) 120 V
ans. b

68. In single pulse modulation used in PWM inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be
a) 60′
b) 90′
c) 110′
d) 120′
ans. a

69. the dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1mA under forward biasing is
a) 100 Ohm
b) 13 mOhm
c) 13 Ohm
d) 26 Ohm
ans. d

70. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases
a) mobility increases
b) mobility decreases
c) drain current decreases
d) transconductance increases
ans. b

APTITUDE SECTION

72. The sum of a three digit number and the number formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit.
a) 9
b) 6
c) 4
d) 2
c

73. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digits numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take?
a) 16
b) 6
c) 26
d) 36
ans. c

74. A test consists of 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote this test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?
a) 46
b) 42
c) 44
d) 48
ans. c

75. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obtained when the numerator is decreased by 2 and denominator is decreased by 11 . The sum of numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction
a) 1/23
b) 7/17
c) 11/13
d) 5/19
ans. b

76. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of four parts. Likewise, into how many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk ?
a) 11
b) 21
c) 31
d) 41
ans. a

78. Five persons namely Yasin, Arafat, Rasheed, Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered from 1 to 6 . The following table provides information about the serial numbers of the seats  on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit

Names  Yasir    Arafat     Rasheed    Ali         Rehman
Seat no.  1        2 or 3      2,3,or 4    4 or 5      5 or 6
If one of the seats numbered 2 or 4 is unoccupied , then the number of different ways five mentioned persons can be seated is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
ans. c

81. The length of the bridge , which a train 130 m long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is
a) 200 m
b) 225 m
c) 245 m
d) 250 m
ans. c

82. If PAPER is 11.20 , PENCIL is 9.83 , what will be the PEN?
a) 12.80
b) 11.60
c) 1.66
d) 13.8
ans. b

83. What is the sum of all the number less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?
a) 612
b) 630
c) 702
d) 504
ans. a

84. Identify the odd one
a) heart
b) liver
c) nose
d) kidneys
ans. c

85. 18,10, 6, 4,3,?
a) 8
b) 4
c) 3.5
d) 2.5
ans. d

86. Which makes the best comparison ?
TOMATO: MTOOTA:: 123412: ?
a) 312214
b) 123456
c) 321124
d) 213314
ans. a

87. My brother is standing 40 m south-west of my sister. I am standing 40 m south-east of my brother. I am in which direction of my sister?
a) south
b) west
c) east
d) north-east
ans. a

88. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGX, HIW, _____
a) JKL
b) JKV
c) JKU
d) JKT
ans. b

89. Find related word
Conscience : Wrong:: Police: _______
a) thief
b) law
c) discipline
d) crime
ans. d

91. A boatman goes 2km against the current of the stream on 1 hour and goes 1km along the current in 10 minutes . How long will it take to go 5 km in stationary water?
a) 40 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 1 hr 15 min
d) 1 hr 30 min
ans. c

92. In how many ways can the letters of the word LEADER can be arranged?
a) 72
b) 144
c) 360
d) 720
ans.d

93. One pipe can fill a tank three as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
a) 81 min
b) 144 min
c) 108 min
d) 192 min
ans. b

94. If log27= 1.431, then the value of log 9 is
a) 0.934
b) 0.954
c) 0.945
d) 0.958
ans. b

97. X introduces Y saying,” He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of my father”. How is Y realted to X?
a) brother
b) uncle
c) co-brother
d) brother-in-law
ans.d

98. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is seventeenth from the last, what is Ravi’s rank from the start?
a) 11
b) 15
c) 13
d) 9
ans. b

99. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”, ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories, ‘pie lik tol’ means ” many good stories” . Which word in the code means ‘jokes’?
a) nie
b) pie
c) lik
d) bi
ans. d

100. There are five bus stops A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop. A and E are not terminals stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward journey as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in downward journey is
a) ABCDE
b) CDAEB
c) DACEB
d) DEBAC
ans. d

GATE PAPER ELECTRICAL 2012 SOLVED

TECHNICAL QUESTIONS 

2. The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A thyristor is
a) 5.0
b) 2.0
c) 1.0
d) 0.5
ans. 2

4. The sequence components of the fault current are as follows I+ =j1.5 pu, I- = -j0.5 pu, Izero= -j 1 pu. The type of fault in the system is
a) LG
b) LL
c) LLG
d) LLLG
ans. c

14. The slip of an induction motor normally does not depend on
a) rotor speed
b) synchronous speed
c) shaft torque
d) core-loss component
ans. d

19. The bridge method commonly used for finding the mutual inductance is
a) Heaviside Campbell bridge
b) Schering bridge
c) De Sauty bridge
d) Wien bridge
ans. a

27. The locked rotor current in a 3-phase , star connected 15kw , 4-pole , 230V , 50Hz induction motor at rated conditions is 50 A. Neglecting losses and magnetizing current, the approximate locked rotor line current drawn when the motor is connected to a 236 V , 57 Hz supply is
a) 58.5 A
b) 45.0 A
c) 42.7 A
d) 55.6 A
ans. b

28. An analog voltmeter uses external multiplier settings. With a multiplier setting of 20 Kohm , it reads 440V and with a multiplier setting of 80 Kohm, it reads 352 V . For a multiplier setting of 40 Kohm , the voltmeter reads
a) 371 V
b) 383 V
c) 394 V
d) 406 V
ans. d

36. A fair coin is tossed till a head appears for the first time. The probability that the number of required tosses is odd, is
a) 1/3
b) 1/2
c) 2/3
d) 3/4
ans. c

39. A cylindrical rotor generator delivers 0.5 pu power in the steady-state to an infinite bus through a transmission line of reactance 0.5 pu. The generator no-load voltage is 1.5 pu and the infinite bus voltage is 1 pu. The inertia constant of the generator is 5 MW-s/MVA and the generator reactance is 1 pu.The critical clearing angle, in degrees, for a three-phase dead short circuit fault at the generator terminal is
a) 53.3
b) 60.2
c) 70.8
d) 79.6
ans. d

GENERAL APTITUDE


56. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence:
Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face , his_____ was impressive.
a) beggary
b) nomenclature
c) jealously
d) nonchalance
ans. d

58. Which one of the following options is the closet in meaning to word given below?
 Latitude
a) Eligibilty
b) Freedom
c) coersion
d) Meticulouness
ans. b

59. fiill in the blank with appropriate alternative from the options
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he_____ the matress out on the balcony.
a) should take
b) shall take
c) should have taken
d) will have taken
ans. a

60. find out error in sentence
I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
a) requested that
b) should be given
c) the driving test
d) instead of tomorrow
ans. b

61. There are eight bags of rice looking alike , seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance , the minimum number of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 8
ans. a

62. One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient , intact and fighting, even when the odds and conditions were against them.
which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
a) Through regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in adverse circumstances.
b) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals.
c) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors.
d) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being against them.
ans. a

64. Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total money value of the notes is Rs 230 . The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
a) 5
b) 6
c) 9
d) 10
ans. a

65. A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 pm and 2 pm on a given day. There is a condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes . The probability that they will meet on that day is
a) 1/4
b) 1/6
c) 7/16
d) 9/16
ans. c

VIZAG STEEL ELECTRICAL 10TH JUNE 2012 SOLVED

1. Two towns A and B are 60 km apart. A school has to be built to serve 150 students from A and 50 students from B. If the total distance to be traveled by all the students is to be as less as possible , Where should the school be built?
a) in town B
b) 45 km from B
c) in town A
d) 45 km from A
ans. c

2. An alternator is supplying 10 A to an inductive load at 220V, while running at 1000 rpm. Now if the speed of the alternator is reduced to 750 rpm but the field current remains unchanged, the load current will become
a) 18 A
b) 13.3 A
c) 10 A
d) 7.5 A
ans. c

3. An initially relaxed RC-series network with R=2 Mohm and C=1 microF is switched on to a 10V step input. The voltage across the capacitor after 2 second will be
a) zero
b) 3.68 V
c) 6.32 V
d) 10 V
ans. c

4. The electric breakdown strength of an insulating material depends on
a) composition of material
b) thickness of the material
c) time of application of voltage
d) all of these
ans. d

5. The number of electrical degrees passed through in one revolution of a six pole synchronous alternator is
a) 360
b) 720
c) 1080
d) 2160
ans. c

6. A rotary converter can be started
a) from dc side as dc motor
b) from ac side as induction motor
c) by means of a small auxiliary motor
d) any of three
ans. d

7. Choose the antonym of the given word
Gallant
a) courageous
b) weak
c) cowardly
d) majestic
ans. c

8. In how many ways can a party of 4 men and 4 women be seated at circular table so that no two women are adjacent
a) 24×24
b) 2x 4!
c) 144
d) 4 ^4
ans. c

9. String efficiency can be improved by
a) using longer cross arm
b) grading the insulator
c) using a guard ring
d) any of these
ans. d

10. The maximum power developed in the synchronous motor will depend on
a) rotor excitation only.
b) maximum value of coupling angle
c) supply voltage only
d) rotor excitation supply voltage and maximum value of coupling angle
ans. d

11. The open loop transfer function of a unity -ve feedback control system is (S) = 1/ (s+2)^2 .The closed loop transfer function will have poles at
a) -2,-2
b) -2,-1
c) -2, +-j
d) -2,2
ans. c

12. Choose the synonym of the given word
a) shocking
b) clear
c) glowing
d) angry
ans. a

13. A unity -ve feedback control system with open loop transfer function G(s)= k/s(s+1). The steady state error of the system due to a unit step input is
a) zero
b) k
c) 1/k
d) infinity
ans. a

14. Which letter is different from the other three?
a) AERIE
b) ADEUX
c) ADMIT
d) ABUSE
ans. a

16.If Rs.1200 maintains a family of 4 persons for 30 days , how long will Rs.2040 maintains a family of 6 persons?
a) 28 days
b) 30 days
c) 32 days
d) 34 days
ans. d

17. A sinusoidal voltage V and frequency f is connected to a series circuit at variable resistance R and a fixed reactance X. The locus of the tip of the current phasor I or R varies from 0 to infinity is
a) a semi circle with a diameter V/X
b) a straight line with a slope R/X
c) an ellipse with V/R as major axis
d) a circle at radius R/X and origin at (0, V/2)
ans. a

18. A unity -ve feedback control system has a phase of -125 degrees at gain crossover frequency. The phase margin of the system is
a) -125 degrees
b) -55 degrees
c) 125 degrees
d) 55 degrees
ans. d

20. If a man gains 5% by selling nibs at the rate of 34 a rupee, how many a rupee, how many a rupee must he sell them so as to gain 19%
a) 33
b) 31
c) 30
d) 29
ans. c

21. The first pair of words provide a definite relationship. Complete the second pair from the options given, such that the same relationship is maintained
Rain : Drop:: Snow: ?
a) ice
b) drop
c) flake
d) white
ans. c

22. If 6 men or 9 boys can reap a field in 8 days, in how many days will 8 men and 6 boys reap the same field?
a) 3 and half days
b) 4 days
c) 4 and half days
d) 5 days
ans. b

24. Port Blair is located on which of the following Islands?
a) North Andaman
b) Middle Andaman
c) South Andaman
d) None of these
ans. c

25. Where is the Vallabhbhai patel stadium located?
a) Kolkata
b) Mumbai
c) Chennai
d) Delhi
ans. b

26. Zojila Pass is in which state?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Sikkim
c) Uttarakand
d) Assam
ans. a

27. How many such pairs of letters in the word” APPREHENSION” each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
ans. b

28. A good dielectric should have all the properties EXCEPT
a) high mechanical strength
b) high resistance to thermal deterioration
c) high dielectric loss
d) freedom from gaseous inclusions
ans. c

29. The impurity in liquid dielectric which has significant effect in reducing the breakdown strength , is
a) dust
b) dissolved glass
c) moisture
d) ionic impurities
ans. c

30. Identify the type of word that is underlined.
He saw a parking space between two cars and drove into it.
a) verb
b) conjunction
c) preposition
d) adverb
ans. c

31. A pair of words is given . Choose the appropriate pair from the options so as to maintain the same relationship.
Rudder : Ship
a) sail : boat
b) wheel: car
c) shell : snail
d) tail : bird
ans. d

32. In hydro power plants
a) initial cost is high and operating cost is low
b) initial cost as well as operating costs are high
c) initial cost is low and operating cost is high
d) initial cost as well as operation cost is low
ans. a

33. A power plant supply energy to a city will usually experience peak demand
a) from midnight to early morning
b) 8 am to 12 noon
c) 2 pm to 6 pm
d) 6 pm to 12 pm
ans. d

34. A wine merchant buys 10 casks of wine. If he sells it at Rs. 5 a liter, he loses Rs.200 and if he sells it at Rs. 6 a liter he gains Rs.150. Find the number of liters in a cask.
a) 25
b) 32
c) 35
d) 40
ans. c

35. When commutation is obtained by increasing the current density at the leading edge and decreasing the same at the trailing edge, it is known as
a) under commutation
b) over commutation
c) straight commutation
d) sinusoidal commutation
ans. b

36. In ‘plasma’ state a gas
a) loses electrical conductivity
b) conducts electricity
c) becomes perfect insulator
d) sinusoidal commutation
ans. b

37. A carriage driving in a fog passed a man who was talking at 3km /h in the same direction. He could see the carriage for 4 minutes and it was visible to him up to 100 m. What is the speed of the carriage?
a) 3.5 km/h
b) 4 km/h
c) 4.25 km/h
d) 4.5 km/h
ans. c

38. If we divide 581 in three parts such that 4 times the first may be equal to 6 times the second and 11 times the third , then the three parts are in the ratio of
a) 4:6:11
b) 11:6:4
c) 1/4: 1/6:1/11
d) none of these
ans. c

39. Which one of the following nations donated 1 million US dollars to Nalanda international university?
a) China
b) France
c) UK
d) USA
ans. a

40. Virat Kohli has be slated the vice captain of the Indian cricket team, he represents which of the following states?
a) Delhi
b) Uttar pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Rajasthan
ans. a

41. In DC machines the number of poles is generally decided by
a) frequency of flux reversals
b) weight of iron parts
c) weight of copper
d) all of those
ans. d

42. A bookseller sells a  book at a profit of 10%. If he had bought it at 4% less and sold it for Rs.6 more, he would have gained 18 3/4% . What did cost him?
a) Rs. 118
b) Rs 136
c) Rs 142
d) Rs 150
ans. d

43. A sum of money was divided amongst 4 persons. Three of them received 1/8, 2/5 and 3/16 of the whole respectively, while the fourth received Rs 46. What was the original sum?
a) Rs 92
b) Rs 138
c) Rs 144
d) Rs 160
ans. d

44. In India, which of the following has the largest area under cultivation ?
a) wheat
b) cotton
c) rice
d) jute
ans. c

45. The normal frequency rms voltage that appears across the breaker poles after final arc extinction has occurred, is
a) recovery voltage
b) re-striking voltage
c) supply voltage
d) peak voltage
ans. a

46. The arc voltage produced in the circuit breaker is always
a) in phase with arc current
b) leading the arc current by 90 degrees
c) lagging the arc current by 90 degrees
d) none of these
ans. a

48. Select the related number from the given alternatives
123:132:: 235:?
a) 235
b) 253
c) 352
d) 252
ans. b

50. In which states of India , are most diamond mines found?
a) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
b) Uttar pradesh and Jharkand
c) Madya Pradesh
d) Uttar Pradesh and Madya Pradesh
ans. c

51. The losses occuring in the motor of an induction motor are less than those in the stator because of
a) small diameter of rotor
b) less rotor frequency
c) slot skewing
d) none of these
ans. b

52. In an arc rectifier the drop in voltage at the cathode is approximately
a) 1 volt
b) 6 to 7 volts
c) 60 to 70 volts
d) 1.2 volts
ans. b

53. The ALU of a computer normally contains high speed storage elements called
a) semi conductor memory
b) registers
c) hard disk
d) magnetic disk
ans. b

54. A series of words is given. From the options choose the order of words which makes it meaningful .
1. protect 2. pressure 3. relief  4. rain 5. Flood
a) 2,4,3,1,5
b) 2, 5,4,1,3
c) 2,4,5,1,3
d) 3,2,4,5,1
ans. c

55. Inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by using
a) Schering bridge
b) Anderson bridge
c) Wein bridge
d) Maxwell-Wein bridge
ans. b

56. Magnetostriction represents
a) grain oriented magnetic properties
b) the upper limit to which magnetic properties can be induced.
c) change in dimensions resulting from magnetisation of ferromagnetic materials
d) none of these
ans. c

57. Insert the three letters such that can be prefixed by all of the letters on the left given
st, br, s, l, gr, h
a) rad
b) ort
c) ear
d) and
ans. d

58. The LVDT usually has two secondaries connected in
a) series addition
b) series opposition
c) parallel addition
d) parallel opposition
ans. b

59. The surge impedance of transmission lines is about
a) 50 ohm
b) 100 ohm
c) 250 ohm
d) 500 ohm
ans. d

70. The slip rings of wound rotor machines are made from
a) electrolytic copper
b) brass
c) cast iron
d) mild steel
ans. b

71. The speed of a large plane is 1040km/hr and the speed of a small plane is 416 km/hr. If the small plane flies 450 km , how much distance would the large plane have flown during the same time?
a) 1080 km
b) 1125 km
c) 1180 km
d) 1200 km
ans. b

72. A can do a piece of work in 16 days , B in 24 days. With the help of a boy they finish it in 8 days. the boy will do it alone in
a) 32 days
b) 40 days
c) 48 days
d) 96 days
ans. c

73. Identify the type of word that is underlined.
She ran along the corridor and up the stairs to the second floor
a) verb
b) conjunction
c) preposition
d) adverb
ans. c

74. Arrange the words to make meaningful sentence.
P: handed  Q: she R: the S: package T: me
a) RSQPT
b) TPRSQ
c) RSPQT
d) QPTRS
ans. d

75. Overall thermal efficiency of a steam power station is in the range
a) 18-24%
b) 30-40%
c) 44-62%
d) 68-79%
ans. a

76. A high starting torque synchronous motor has
a) simplex rotor
b) phase wound damper
c) five slip rings
d) all of these
ans. d

77. For avoiding cogging in induction motor the difference between the number of stator and rotor slots should not be
a) P
b) 3P
c) 5P
d) any of these
ans. b

78. Two powerful earthquakes of 8.6 and 8.2 magnitude struck the coast of Sumatra on 12 April 2012. Sumatra is located in which of the following Asian country ?
a) Indonesia
b) Maldives
c) Myanmar
d) Sri Lanka
ans. a

79. In energy meters, the major cause for creeping is
a) vibration
b) stray magnetic field
c) overcompensation for friction
d) excessive voltage across the potential coil
ans. c

81. Which festival is celebrated in North India when Pongal is celebrated in Tamil Nadu?
a) Holi
b) Makar Sankranti
c) Diwali
d) Dushera
ans. b

82. Fibre glass insulation can be used up to temperature of
a) 60 degrees C
b) 80 degrees C
c) 130 degrees C
d) 180 degrees C
ans. c

83. An overhead transmission lines the effect of capacitance can be neglected when the length of line is less than
a) 200 km
b) 160 km
c) 100 km
d) 80 km
ans. d

84. In an alternator , at lagging power factor, the generated voltage per phase , as compared to that at unity power factor
a) must be same as terminal voltage
b) must be less than the terminal voltage
c) must be more than the terminal voltage
d) must be 1.41 times the terminal voltage
ans. c

86. Complete the series with the correct alternative from the options given
5,10, 13, 26, 29, 58,61, _
a) 122
b) 125
c) 128
d) 64
ans. a

87. Fill in the blank with the best option
_______ they are poor, they are happy.
a) As
b) Though
c) Because
d) If
ans. b

88. Find the least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound interest will be more than doubled
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
ans. 4

89. The percentage of silicon in transformer stampings is usually limited to
a) 0.4 %
b) 1.4 %
c) 4 %
d) 14 %
ans. c

90. India became free from bird flu,
a) H5N1
b) H4N1
c) H5N2
d) H3N3
ans. a

91.Two resistances R1 and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 ohms when in series and 1 ohm when in parallel. The resistances are
a) 2 ohms and 2.5 ohms
b) 4 ohms and 0.5 ohms
c) 1.5 ohms and 3 ohms
d) 5 ohms and 0.5 ohms
ans. c

93. A relay used on long transmission lines is
a) mho’s relay
b) reactance relay
c) impedance relay
d) no relay is used
ans. a

94. Alex Paul Menon, who was abducted by Maoists on 21 April 2012 is the District Magistrate of which district of Chattisgarh?
a) Sukma
b) Mungeli
c) Surajpur
d) Balrampur
ans. a

95. In how many days a committee of 5 members can be selected from 6 men and 5 ladies, consisting of 3 men and 2 ladies?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 200
ans. d

97. A pair of words is given. Choose the appropriate pair from the options so as to maintain the same relationship
Coke: Coal
a) bread ; eat
b) bread : dough
c) bread: flour
d) bread : slice
ans. b

98. Find the missing letters of the series:
AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?
a) MQORN
b) QMONR
c) MQNRO
d) NQMOR
ans. c

99. If SINGLE is coded as 66, what code is given to WINKLE ?
a) 76
b) 66
c) 78
d) 74
ans. d

100. The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as
a) skin effect
b) corona
c) permeability
d) unsymmetrical fault
ans. b

101. In a certain code LIBERATE  is written as 56423172. How TRIBAL will be written in this code?
a) 736415
b) 673451
c) 476315
d) 743615
ans. a

102. Find the missing letters of the series
cab_c_bdca_d_abd
a) d,a,b,c
b) c,c,a,a
c) b,c,d,a
d) a,b,c,d
ans. a

103.Impulse voltages are characterized by
a) polarity
b) peak value
c) time of half the peak value
d) all the above
ans. d

104. The Potier’s triangle separates the
a) iron losses and copper losses
b) field mmf and armature mmf
c) stator voltage and rotor voltage
d) armature leakage reactance and armature reaction mmf
ans. d

106. In 3 hours a boat can be rowed 9km up stream or 18 km down stream. Find the speed of the water in the stream
a) 1km/h
b) 1.5km/h
c) 1.75km/h
d) 2.25 km/h
ans. b

107. Which type of slots are generally used induction motors?
a) open type
b) semi-closed type
c) closed type
d) all of these
ans. b

108. Planning commission of India on 18 January 2012 approved Rudrasagar development scheme. The scheme is related to which of the following state?
a) Tripura
b) Assam
c) Manipur
d) Sikkim
ans. a

109. Choose the correct spelling
a) guard
b) gaurd
c) goard
d) guerd
ans. a

111. 0.9 percent can be expressed as
a) 0.9
b) 0.09
c) 0.009
d) none of these
ans. c

112. The following is a measure of reproducibility in a measurement system
a) resolution
b) drift
c) precision
d) fidelity
ans. c

114. World Environment Day is observed on
a) 5th June
b) 10th June
c) 20th January
d) 5th December
ans. a

115. An alternator is generating power at 210 V per phase while running at 1500 rpm. If the speed of the alternator drops to 1000 rpm, the generated voltage per phase will be
a) 180 V
b) 150 V
c) 140 V
d) 105 V
ans. c

116. When a number of 2-port networks are connected in cascade, the individual
a) impedance matrices are added
b) admittance matrices are added
c) chain matrices are multiplied
d) h-matrices are multiplied
ans. d

118. Two bulbs marked 200 watt-250 volts and 100 watt-250 volts are joined in series to 250 volts supply . Power consumed in circuit is
a) 33 watt
b) 67 watt
c) 100 watt
d) 300 watt
ans. b

119. A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20000, CMRR = 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) 0
ans. a

120. Light year is a unit of
a) time
b) velocity
c) distance
d) speed
ans. c

121. Switching surge is
a) high voltage dc
b) high voltage ac
c) short duration pulse voltage
d) hyperbolically dying voltage
ans. c

123. How many bones are there in an adult human being?
a) 210
b) 206
c) 260
d) 300
ans. c

124. Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient ?
a) brass
b) mercury
c) electrolytes
d) silver
ans. c

125.  A merz-prize protection is suitable for
a) transformers
b) alternators
c) feeders
d) transmission lines
ans. b

126. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually
a) few minutes
b) few seconds
c) one second
d) few cycles of supply voltage
ans. d

127. choose the odd one out among the given words
mirror, glass, reflect, copy , emulate
a) glass
b) reflect
c) copy
d) emulate
ans. a

129. Ash content of most of the Indian coals is around
a) 1 %
b) 5 %
c) 15 %
d) 35 %
ans. d

130. A metal resistance has resistance of 10 ohms at 0’C  and 11 ohms at 160’C , the temperature coefficient is
a) 0.00625/’C
b) 0.0625/’C
c) 0.000625/’C
d) 0.625/’C
ans. c

131. Choose the synonym of the given word
Quota
a) reserved
b) seat
c) allocation
d) marks
ans. c

132. The average age of 600 students of a school is 10.75 years. With enrolment of 40 new students, the average age is reduced to 10.4375. Find the average age of the new students.
a) 5.5 years
b) 5.75 years
c) 6.8 years
d) 7.25 years
ans. b

133. Choose the odd one out among the given words:
drowse, slumber, catnap, snore, doze
a) drowse
b) catnap
c) snore
d) doze
ans. c

134. Select the related number from the given alternatives
4:19::7:?
a) 49
b) 52
c) 28
d) 68
ans. d

135. Which of the following circuit breakers is preferred for EHT application ?
a) air blast circuit breakers
b) minimum oil circuit breakers
c) bulk oil circuit breakers
d) SF6 oil circuit breakers
ans. b

137. The use of capacitor filter in a rectifier circuit gives satisfactory performance only when the load
a) current is high
b) current is low
c) voltage is low
d) voltage is high
ans. c

138. The scientist who discovered that the earth revolves round the sun was
a) Newton
b) Copernicus
c) Dalton
d) Einstein
ans. b

139. A first order system is initially at rest and excited by a step input at t=0 . Its output  becomes 1.1V in 4 seconds and eventually reaches steady state value of 2V . Its time constant will be
a) 2 sec
b) 3 sec
c) 4 sec
d) 5 sec
ans. d

140. For a simplex lap winding , the commutator pitch is equal to
a) +1
b) -+1
c) -1
d) +- 2
ans. b

141. Fill in the blank with the best option
I don’t have ______ furniture
a) many
b) much
c) lot
d) few
ans. b

142. Who among the following Indian women wrestler created a history by qualifying for the London Olympics?
a) sunita kumari
b) geeta kumari
c) Namrata Gill
d) Shweta Pandit
ans. b

143. Electrostatic instruments are not free from the effect of
a) temperature
b) frequency
c) stray magnetic field
d) stray electrostatic field
ans. d

144. Which among the following soils is rich in minerals?
a) black soil
b) alluvial soil
c) red soil
d) laterite soil
ans. a

145. How many 10 digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 1 and 2?
a) 10 !
b) 10C2
c) 10P2
d) 2^10
ans. d

146. Choose the antonym of the given word
Talkative
a) babbling
b) silent
c) taciturn
d) vocal
ans. c

147. The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is
a) lack of decidability
b) availability in low energy densities
c) intermittency
d) all of these
ans. d

148. What is the HCF of 1/2 and 5/8 ?
a) 1/8
b) 2/5
c) 5/8
d) 5/16
ans. a

149. Indravati hydroelectric project belongs to which state?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Orissa
c) Karnataka
d) Andra Pradesh
ans. b

150. Open circuit test on a transformer is conducted to obtain
a) The leakage impedance
b) the omhic loss
c) hysteresis loss only
d) core loss
ans. d

151. Which set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given word shall complete it?
_ST_OL_GY
a) ORA
b) RAO
c) ARO
d) AOR
ans. c

152. Express 0.99 as fraction in its lowest term
a) 9/10
b) 9/100
c) 9/99
d) 1/11
ans. d

153. If 17 men can build a wall 100m long, 4m high and 3/4 m thick in 25 days, how many men will build a wall twice in length in half the time?
a) 34
b) 51
c) 68
d) 76
ans. c

154. Who among the following had plundered Kohinoor diamond from India?
a) Mahmood of Ghazni
b) Ahmed Shah Abdali
c) Nadir Shah
d) none of these
ans. c

155. The numbers of comparison carried out in a 4-bit flash type A/D converter is
a) 16
b) 15
c) 4
d) 3
ans. b

157. What is the smallest number that must be added to 6156 to make it a perfect square?
a) 244
b) 88
c) 90
d) 85
ans.d

158. A train 130 m long travelling at 45km/h takes 30 sec to cross the bridge. The length of the bridge is
a) 245 m
b) 275 m
c) 225 m
d) 195 m
ans. a

159. For the same rating, the cost of an induction motor as compared to that of a DC motor is
a) more
b) less
c) same
d) nearly the same
ans.b

160. The maximum phase shift that can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function G(s) = 1+6s/1+2s is
a) 15′
b) 30′
c) 45′
d) 60′
ans. b

161. In position control systems, the device used for providing rate-feedback voltage is called
a) potentiometer
b) synchro-transmitter
c) synchro-transformer
d) tachogenerator
ans. d

163. Heating value of coal is approximately
a) 1000-2000 kcal/kg
b) 2000-4000 kcal/kg
c) 5000-6500 kcal/kg
d) 9000-10500 kcal/kg
ans. c

164. A 159.23 microF capacitor is in parallel with a resistance R draws a current of 25 A from 300 V , 50 Hz mains. At which frequency this combination draws the same current from 360 V mains?
a) 16 Hz
b) 18 Hz
c) 19 Hz
d) 21 Hz
ans. c

165. Fill in the blank with the best option.
Ask him _______ he liked it.
a) though
b) that
c) if
d) when
ans. c

167. Ram ranks 16th from the top and 15th from the bottom in a certain examination. How many students are there in the class?
a) 30
b) 31
c) 32
d) 33
ans.a

168. Choose the correct spelling.
a) guage
b) gage
c) gauge
d) gaige
ans. c

169. Find out the missing term in the number series.
2,6,12,20, ?, 42,56,72
a) 24
b) 30
c) 32
d) 36
ans. b

170. A synchro-transmitter receiver unit is a
a) two-phase ac device
b) 3-phase ac device
c) dc device
d) single-phase ac device
ans. d

171. A certain sum of money doubles itself in 8 years at a simple interest. It will treble itself in
a) 12 years
b) 16 years
c) 24 years
d) 32 years
ans.b

172. In transformers, the cylindrical winding with rectangular conductors  is generally used for
a) low voltage winding
b) high voltage winding
c) tertiary voltage winding
d) all of these
ans. a

173. A series of words is given. From the options choose the order of words which makes it meaningful
1. Travel   2. Destination  3. Payment  4. Berth/Seat no 5. Reservation
a) 1,2,5,4,3,6
b) 2,6,3,5,4,1
c) 6,2,5,4,3,1
d) 5,3,4,1,6,2
ans. b

174. In which state of India was the first paper mill was started?
a) West Bengal
b) Bihar
c) Orissa
d) Assam
ans. a

175. V curves for a synchronous motor represent relation between
a) field current and speed
b) field current and power factor
c) power factor and speed
d) armature current and field current
ans. d

176. If the permeability of a materiel is 0.999991 it can be classified as
a) diamagentic material
b) paramagnetic material
c) ferro-magnetic material
d) ferrite
ans. a

177. In how many ways can 10 books be arranged on the shelf so that a particular pair of books shall be never together?
a) 8!
b) 9!
c) 2X9!
d) 8X9!
ans. d

180. Choose the antonym of the given word.
Limpid
a) liquid
b) opaque
c) transparent
d) solid
ans. b

181. Skewing of rotor slots helps in
a) improving heat transfer
b) reducing noise
c) suppressing undesirable harmonics
d) all of these
ans. d

183. Inter poles in DC machine are provided to reduce
a) sparking
b) armature reaction
c) iron loss
d) efficiency
ans. a

184. Choose the synonym of the given word
 Hackneyed
a) carriage
b) stale
c) cart
d) fresh
ans. b

185. In a ballistic galvanometer, damping follows
a) hyperbolic decay
b) logarithmic decay
c) exponential decay
d) exponential rise
ans.b

186. In an oil filled transformer, oil is provided for
a) cooling
b) insulation
c) lubrication
d) both a and b
ans. d

187. Dandi March was from the
a) sabarmati Ashram to Dandi
b) Dandi to sabarmati Ashram
c) Bardoli to Dandi
d) sabarmati to bardoli
ans. a

188. Union Rural development Ministry of India roped in which National award winning actor as the brand ambassador for improving the state of sanitation in the country?
a) Sabana Azmi
b) Ananya Chatterje
c) Vidya Balan
d) Konkana Sen Sharma
ans. c

189. A d’Arsonval meter of 200 ohms dc coil 0-1mA sensitivity gives full scale reading of 10 amp on using a shunt resistance of
a) 0.02 ohm
b) 0.0002 ohm
c) 200 ohm
d) 10 ohm
ans. a

190. Frequency compensation in a moving iron instrument is achieved by connecting
a) a capacitor in series with the fixed coil
b) a capacitor across the fixed coil
c) high resistance in series with the coil
d) low resistance in series with the coil
ans. b

191. Which is  the  lightest gas among the following ?
a) Ozone
b) Helium
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
ans. b

192. The first pair of words provide a definite relationship. Complete the second pair from the options given, such that the same relationship is maintained.
Axe : Woodman :: Awl : ?
a) plumber
b) tailor
c) cobbler
d) painter
ans. c

193. At an examination , in which full marks were 500, A got 10% less than B , B 25% more than C and C 20% less than D. If A got 360, what percentage marks did D get?
a) 64 %
b) 78 %
c) 80 %
d) 82 %
ans. c

194. Arrange the words to make a meaningful sentence
P : been  Q : I’ve  R: Paris  S: to  T: before
a) SRQPT
b) RTQPS
c) QPSRT
d) QPTSR
ans. c

195. Load factor during a period is
a) average load/installed capacity
b) average load/ maximum load
c) maximum load/ average load
d) maximum load/ installed capacity
ans. b

196. Damping method used in moving coil instruments is
a) air damping
b) fluid damping
c) spring damping
d) eddy current damping
ans. d

197. If a capacitor is energized by a symmetrical square wave current source , then the steady state voltage across the capacitor will be
a) square wave
b) triangular wave
c) step wave
d) impulse wave
ans. b

198. Dielectric strength of PVC is around
a) 5 kv/mm
b) 10 kv/mm
c) 15 kv/mm
d) 30 kv/mm
ans. d

199. Which one of the following governments launched Panch Parmeshwar scheme?
a) Madya Pradesh
b) Bihar
c) UP
d) Kerala
ans. a

200. A transformer is designed for certain ambient temperature. If it actually operates at temperature 10′ C above the design temperature its KVA rating should be
a) increased by 10 %
b) reduced by 5 %
c) reduced by 10 %
d) reduced by 20 %
ans. d

GROUP 1 GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY MAY 2012 PAPER

2. If ‘eraser’ is called ‘box’ , ‘box’ is called ‘pencil’, ‘pencil’ is called ‘sharpener’ and ‘sharpener’ is called ‘bag’ , what is used by child to write?
a) Eraser
b) Box
c) Pencil
d) Sharpener

3. In a certain code language , 134 means good and tasty, 418 means see good pictures and 829 means pictures are excellent. 498 means what?
a) See tasty pictures
b) Pictures are tasty
c) See excellent pictures
d) Pictures are good

4. At present Radhika’s age is half of the age of her father. 20 years ago her age was one-forth the age of her father. What will be the age of Radhika after 12 years?
a) 32 years
b) 52 years
c) 42 years
d) 62 years

5. Rama was facing East. He walked 4 km forward , then he turned to his right and walked 3 km . Again the turned to his right and walked 4 km . Then he turned back. Now in which direction is Rama walking?
a) East
b) West
c) North
d) South

6. According to the World Bank, during the period 1966 to 2000 , the approximate percentage loss of gross  domestic produce due to disasters was
a) 2.85%
b) 2.50%
c) 2.25%
d)1.95%

7. The National policy on Disaster management was approved by the Union Cabinet in
a) 2009
b) 2008
c) 2007
d) 2010

8. The Chairman of the National Disaster Management Authority is
a) Vice President
b) Minister, Human Resource Development
c) Home Minister
d) Prime Minister

9.National Disaster Reserve Fund is the result of
a) 11th Finance Commission
b) 12th Finance Commission
c) 13th Finance Commission
d) None of the above

10. By what measures can we significantly reduce the impact of disasters on our people?
a) Better planning
b) Preparedness awareness
c) Mitigation measures
d) All the above

11. The substance used for the treatment of muscular pains and paralysis is
a) Ultraviolet rays
b) Microwaves
c) Infra-red rays
d) Radio frequency waves

12. L.P.G gas contains
a) Pentane
b) Butane
c) Methane
d) Heptane

13. The tubes used for dialysis and blood transfusion are made of
a) Polyethylene
b) Polysilicon
c) Poly vinyl chloride
d) Polybutane

14. The precious gem Ruby, is mainly aluminium trioxide with trace amount of
a) Silver
b) Manganese
c) Chromium
d) Cobalt

15. Milk of magnesia used as anti acid is
a) Magnesium acetate
b) Magnesium hydroxide
c) Magnesium chloride
d) Magnesium nitrate

16. The Indian Military Academy is located at
a) Bangalore
b) Coimbatore
c) Dehradun
d) Mumbai

17. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Lok Sabha is
a) Sushma Swaraj
b) Murali Manohar Joshi
c) Yashwant Sinha
d) Arun Jaitley

18. The Director General of World Trade Organisation is
a) Pascal Lamy
b) Drunkel
c) Anthony Lake
d) Asha-Rose Migiro

19. The Prime Minister of China is
a) Wen Jiabao
b) Hu Jintao
c) Kim Hwang-Sik
d) Lee Myung-Bak

20. Rameshwar Thakur is the Governer of
a) Maharashtra
b) Madya Pradesh
c) Manipur
d) Meghalaya

21. “Mattavilasa Prashasanam” was composed by
a) Ramanujacharya
b) Mahendra Varman
c) Narasimha Varman
d) Dandi

22. Who founded the city of Bhagyanagar?
a) Ibrahim Qutub Shah
b) Mohammed Quli Qutub Shah
c) Mohammed Qutub Shah
d) Abdullah Qutub Shah

23. The rate of land tax levied by Shershah was
a) 1/2 of produce
b) 1/4 of produce
c) 1/3 of produce
d) 1/5 of produce

24. The word ‘Sikh’ means
a) Solider
b) Monk
c) Disciple
d) Devotee

25. The Bahmani Kingdom was founded in
a) 1325
b) 1336
c) 1345
d) 1347

26. The Great Victoria Desert is in
a) UK
b) Australia
c) USA
d) Uganda

27. The Desert City in Neveda which is known of Casinos is
a) San Diego
b) Las Vagas
c) San Jose
d) Sacramento

28. The fertile Pokhara valley is in
a) Bhutan
b) Sikkim
c) Nepal
d) Arunachal Pradesh

29. The river that passes through Srinagar city is
a) Jhelum
b) Chenab
c) Ravi
d) Beas

30. Sri Lanka is seperated from India by the
a) Indira Point
b) Gulf of Mannar
c) Vellankulum
d) Talaimannar

31. Thorium is found in
a) Andra Pradesh
b) Kerala
c) Karnataka
d) Tamil Nadu

32. In India dust storms commonly occur in the month of
a) March
b) May
c) July
d) October

33. An oil refinery in India is situated at
a) Surat
b) Kolkata
c) Tatipaka
d) Kozhikode

34. Tirupati is on the range of
a) Nallamallai
b) Palakonda
c) Seshachalam
d) Veligonda

35. The mountains that make the boundary between France and Spain are
a) Pyrenees
b) Penines
c) Queen Alexandra Range
d) Sentinel Range

36. In the Indian Parlimantary System, the members of Rajya Sabha are elected according to
a) Non transferable vote system
b) Single transferable vote system
c) Cumulative vote system
d) Weighted vote system

37. According to the 2001 Census, the Union Territory with lowest population in India is
a) Pondicherry
b) Chandigarh
c) Lakshadweep
d) Delhi

38. In the Parliamentary terminology, under Article 112 the Annual Statement is called
a) Annual Plan
b) Budget
c) Finance Bill
d) Treasury Bill

40. In the 1991 New Industrial Policy of India, one of the major proposals was the allowing of foreign direct investment upto 51.0 percent in
a) All industries
b) Agro processing industries
c) Export industries
d) High priority industries

41. Tight-Loose; Love-Hate; Earth- ?
a) Sky
b) Sun
c) Cloud
d) Height

42. If  Kiran says “Raghu’s mother is th only daughter of my mother” , how is kiran related to Raghu?
a) Grandfather
b) Father
c) Uncle
d) Brother

44. Average of first five multiples of 4 is
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 4

45. A man can do a piece of work in 5 days, but with the help of his son , he can do it in 3 days. In how many days can his son do it alone?
a) 6.5  days
b) 7 days
c) 7.5 days
d) 8 days

46. The spiritual guru of Shivaji was
a) Tukaram
b) Eknath
c) Namdev
d) Ramdas

47. The Theosophical Society was first established in
a) New York
b) London
c) Paris
d) Adyar

48. The first English factory in Bengal was establish at
a) Tamaralipti
b) Hughli
c) Chitttagong
d) Calcutta

49. The Suddhi Movement was started by
a) Kesava Chandra Sen
b) Dayananda Saraswati
c) Atmaram panduranga
d) Vivekananda

50. Tilak was popularly called as “Lokamanya” from the times of
a) Vandemataram Movement
b) Khilafat Movement
c) Home Rule Movement
d) Non-Co-operation Movement

51. Deficiency of thiamine ( vitamin B1) causes
a) Anaemia
b) Beri-Beri
c) Scurvy
d) Night blindness

52. The largest gland in the human body is
a) Adrenal gland
b) Pituitary gland
c) Liver
d) Thyroid gland

53. The class of animals to which Whale belongs is
a) Mammals
b) Reptiles
c) Fish
d) Amphibia

54. International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is situated at
a) Manila
b) Colombo
c) Mumbai
d) Hyderabad

55. The percentage of water in milk is measured with
a) Lactometer
b) Hydrometer
c) Hygrometer
d) Pyknometer

56. Which one is kept outside the purview of Goods and Services Tax Bill of 2011?
a) Crude petroleum
b) Aviation
c) Natural gas
d) all the above

57. The sport included in the First South Asian Winter Games held in january 2011 was
a) Figure Skating
b) Ice hockey
c) Speed skating
d) all the above

58. The country which is not a part of G-4 countries is
a) Germany
b) japan
c) India
d) China

59. The person who received Padma Vibhushan Award for the year 2011 is
a) Montek singh Ahulwalia
b) A.R.Rahman
c) Krishna kumar
d) Usha uthup

60. The person who received Padma Bhushan Award for the year 2011 is
a) Dr. Indira Hinduja
b) Chanda Kochhar
c) Suman Sahai
d) Tabu

61. According to 2001 Census , the Indian State with highest density of population per sq.km is
a) Kerala
b) West Bengal
c) Bihar
d) Uttar Pradesh

62. The woman lieutenant Governer who served Pondicherry Union Territory during 1998-2002 was
a) Chandravati
b) M. Fathima Beevi
c) V.S. Rama Devi
d) Rajani Rai

63. Presently, as laid in the Forth schedule to the constitution of India, the allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to be filled by the representatives of Andra Pradesh State is
a) 18
b) 16
c) 11
d) 14

64. States and Union Territories grouped with an advisory council each is known as
a) State Council
b) Regional Council
c) Joint Council
d) Zonal Council

65. The important permanent financial committees set up by the Parliament to exercise effective control over the general and financial administration of the country are Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, Departmental Committees and
a) Committee on Foreign Affairs
b) Committee on Parlimantary Affairs
c) Committee on Finances of State government
d) Committee on Public Undertakings

66. Six boys are standing in a circle each facing the centre. Ashok  is left to Prabhu , Sudhakar is between Akash and Prakash , Hari is between Ashok and Akash .Who is left to Prakash?
a) Hari
b) Prabhu
c) Akash
d) Sudhakar

67. If the numbers from 4- 86 which are exactly divisible by 5 are arranged in descending order, which would come at the eleventh place from the bottom?
a) 60
b) 65
c) 50
d) 55

68. If Anitha is taller than sujatha but shorter than kumari, and sujatha is just as tall as kanchana but taller than vanitha , then kanchana is
a) shorter than anitha
b) just as tall as anitha
c) taller than kumari
d) shorter than vanitha

69. Squint:Eye::Squeeze:?
a) Tongue
b) Hand
c) Clothes
d) Throat

71. According to the World Disaster Report 2010, during the period 2000-2009 as many as 85 percent of the people affected by disaster belong to the
a) Asia Pacific region
b) African region
c) Japan region
d) Australian region

72.In india, how many people are being exposed to recurring floods every year?
a) 180 million
b) 150 million
c) 200 million
d) 225 million

73. Area of Indian coastline which is vulnerable to strom surges, cyclones and tsunamis is
a) 5700 km
b) 4700 km
c) 3700 km
d) 2700 km

74. The date when the super cyclone hit the Orissa coast which killed nearly 10,000 people and affected over 15 million people across 12 districts of Orissa is
a) 29-8-1996
b) 29-8-1997
c) 29-8-1998
d) 29-8-1999

75. The Disaster Management Act was enacted in India in the year
a) 2006
b) 2005
c) 2007
d) 2008

76. In plants, active cell division occurs in the following parts:
a) Stem
b) Leaves
c) Roots
d) Fruits

77. The color of tomatoes is due to the presence of
a) Carotenoids
b) Flavanoids
c) Vitamins
d) Mineral salts

78. The gas used in fire extinguishers is
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) Hydrogen sulphide

79. The part of the body that is affected due to the disease trachoma is
a) Heart
b) Brain
c) Lungs
d) Eyes

80. The powerful explosive used under the name gun cotton is
a) Potassium chlorate
b) Cellulose nitrate
c) Potassium nitrate
d) Cellulose acetate

81.Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize for the year 2010 was given to
a) K.V. Ramana
b) Dr. V. Shanta
c) Anil kakodkar
d) Sanjeev Galande

82. The National Science Day in India is celebrated on
a) 28th February
b) 22nd july
c) 5th June
d) 28th October

83. Which one of the following is not a recipient of Jnanpith Award?
a) C. Narayana Reddy
b) Indira Goswami
c) Prof. Amartya sen
d) Viswanath Satyanarayana

84. The 98th Indian Science Congress was held in 2011 at
a) Hyderabad
b) New Delhi
c) Bangalore
d) Chennai

85. The Election expenditure limit for a parliamentary constituency in major states now stands at
a) 40 lakhs
b) 50 lakhs
c) 60 lakhs
d) 70 lakhs

86. The responsible person for the attack of bollaram Residency during the Revolt of 1857 was
a) Qasim Rizvi
b) Chidda khan
c) Turrebaz khan
d) Sheikh peer sahib

87. The viceroy who set up the Department of Archaeology was
a) Mayo
b) Rippon
c) Canning
d) Curzon

88. The tomb of Alluri Sitaramaraju is located at
a) Mogallu
b) Chintapalli
c) Sankhavaram
d) Krishnadevipeta

89. The journal vivek vardhini was started by
a) Paravastu Rangacharyulu
b) Kandukuri Veeresalingam
c) Kokkonda Venkataratnam
d) Gidugu Ramamurthy

90. The founder of Hyderabad State Congress was
a) Madapati Hanumantha rao
b) Kesavarao Korathkar
c) Ramananda Tirtha
d) Burugula Ramakrishna rao

91. Of the total 35 States/Union Territories in India, how many are disaster prone?
a) 22
b) 23
c) 24
d) 25

92. Number of people killed by natural disasters in India from 1980 to 2010
a) 1,43,039
b) 1,23,039
c) 1,13,039
d) 1,03, 039

93. National Institute of Disaster Management is located at
a) Baroda
b) New Delhi
c) Cochin
d) Cuttak

94. First Indian Disaster Management Congress was inaugurated on
a) 26-10-2006
b) 29-08-2006
c) 29-11-2006
d) 29-10-2006

95. National Institute of Disaster Management publishes a biannual journal titled
a) Disaster & Development
b) Disaster India
c) Disaster Mitigation
d) Indian Disaster

96. The volume percentage of oxygen present in the air which we inhale is
a) 20 percent
b) 30 percent
c) 40 percent
d) 60 percent

97. The acid produced in the digestive system of human beings is
a) Acetic acid
b) Hydrochloric acid
c) Formic acid
d) Nitric acid

98. The first nuclear power plant in india was set up at
a) Tarapur
b) Ramagundam
c) jaipur
d) koodankulam

99. The material used for electrical fuse wire should have
a) high resistivity
b) low resistivity
c) low melting point
d) high melting point

100. The place in Andra pradesh where the Central Tobacco Research Institute is situated is
a) Nellore
b) Bapatla
c) Guntur
d) Rajamundry

101. The Right of Livelihood Award was established in the year
a) 1970
b) 1980
c) 1990
d) 2000

102. The thirteenth World Cup Hockey to be held in 2014 is scheduled at
a) New Delhi
b) The Hague(Netherlands)
c) Lahore
d) London

103. The name of the Air Chief Marshal of India is
a) N.A.K. Browne
b) Pradeep Vasant Naik
c) Suresh Mehta
d) S.K.Mehra

104. The Chairman of he Special Committee constituted by Andra Pradesh in 2011 to study crop holiday is
a) Ramakanth Reddy
b) Pankaj Dwivedi
c) Jayanthi Ghosh
d) Mohan Kanda

105. According to the Central Government Population Census 2011 , the rank of Andra Pradesh in erms of number of stands at
a) 4th position
b) 5th position
c) 6th position
d) 8th position

107. Siladitya was the title of
a) Asoka
b) Bimbisara
c) Samudragupta
d) Harshavardhana

108. Ghatika was a settlement of
a) Merchants
b) Brahmins
c) Jain Monks
d) Artisans

109. The school of Philosophy taught by Sankaracharya is
a) Dvaita
b) Advaita
c) Vasishtadvaita
d) Dvaitadvaita

110. The hills on which Shillong is situated are
a) Garo
b) Naga
c) Khasi
d) Mikir

111. ‘Khans’ is the state’s financial resource from
a) Land tax paid by Hindus
b) Land tax paid by Muslims
c) Trade tax paid by Muslim merchants
d) State’s share of 1/5th of the war booty

112. The region of  India which has larger female population than male population is
a) West Bengal
b) Mizoram
c) Nagaland
d) Pondicherry

113. Karakum desert is situated in
a) Mongolia
b) China
c) Uzbekistan
d) Turkmenistan

114. The Longest river of Asia is
a) Yellow river
b) Brahmaputra
c) Ganga
d) Yangtze

115. River Krishna originates in
a) Kodagu
b) Mahabaleshwar
c) chikkaballapur

116. A  person who is not a member of either House of Parliament appointed as Minister, according to Article 75(5) shall become a member of any one of the Houses of Parliament before the expiry of
a) 12 months
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 9 months

117. The Indian states which the Mica mineral reserves are available in plenty are Rajasthan, Andra Pradesh, Bihar, and
a) Jharkhand
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Maharastra
d) Madya Pradesh

118. Preparing the guidelines for the formulation of national plan including assessment of its resources is the function of
a) Planning Commision
b) National Development Council
c) Ministry of Finance
d) Union Cabinet

119. The first Indian state in which the institution of Lokayukta was constituted in 1971 is
a) Orissa
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Andra Pradesh
d) Uttar Pradesh

120. The industrial Policy Resolution that was described as the Economic Constitution of India is
a) 1948 Resolution
b) 1956 Resolution
c) 1977 Resolution
d) 1991 Resolution

121. Diamond is an allotrope of
a) Silicon
b) Carbon
c) Hydrogen
d) Sodium

122. The element which is present in large amounts in rocks and minerals is
a) Iron
b) Carbon
c) Silicon
d) Sodium

123. Glass wool is
a) mixture of glass and wool
b) transperent wool
c) finely powdered glass
d) fine threads of glass

124. The ions present in hard water are
a) Calcium and Magnesium
b) Sodium and Potassium
c) Calcium and Barium
d) Sodium and Zinc

125. Laughing gas is
a) Nitric oxide
b) Nitrogen peroxide
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Nitrogen pentoxide

126. The Lokpal Bill was first introduced in the Lok Sabha in the year
a) 1962
b) 1969
c) 2002
d) 2005

127. The Indo-UK Joint Economic and Trade Committee was constituted on
a) 13th January 2005
b) 13th January 2007
c) 13th January 2009
d) 13th January 2011

128. ISRO launched G-SAT-8 Communication Satellite on
a) 21st April 2007
b) 21st April 2008
c) 21st April 2009
d)21st April 2011

129. Anti-poverty decade was declared by UNO for the period
a) 1997-2006
b) 1993-2003
c) 1995-2004
d) 2001-2010

130. Which country is not a member of Group of Seven (G-7) countries?
a) Netherlands
b) New Zealand
c) Canada
d) Russia

131.The measuring scale found at an Indus site is at
a) Harrapa
b) Mohenjodaro
c) Kot Diji
d) Lothal

132. Marriage by purchase of bride was known as
a) Asara
b) Paisacha
c) Prajapatya
d) Rakshasa

133. ‘Hydaspes’ is the Greek name of which Indian river?
a) Ravi
b) Sutlej
c) Jhelum
d) Chenab

134. Buddha delivered his first sermon at
a) kapilvastu
b) sanchi
c) sarnath
d) rajgriha

135. Who propounded Sunyavada?
a) Asvaghosha
b) Nagarjuna
c) Somadeva Suri
d) Kunda Kunda Acharya

136. The original name of Big Apple is
a) New York
b) Cleveland
c) Antarctica
d) Srinagar

137. The world’s longest river is
a) Amazon
b) Nile
c) Yangtze
d) Congo

138. Pakistan and Afganistan are connected by
a) Bolan pass
b) Khyber pass
c) Rohtang pass
d) Afgan pass

139. Which area is the most important for uranium mining?
a) Urals
b) New Mexico
c) Katanga
d) Mesabi Range

140. Which is called Emerald Island?
a) Britain
b) Tasmania
c) Ireland
d) Sicily

141. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the three legislative lists- Central list, State list and Concurrent list which enumerate
a) powers of taxation
b) Duties of Governments
c) Centre-State Relationships
d) Subjects of Administration

142. The novel idea included by the Government of India in the draft Sixth Five year Plan was
a) Long term plan
b) Minimum Needs Programme
c) Rolling plan
d) Rural development programme

143. The chairman of he finance and staff commottee of the constituent assembly of India was
a) Rejendra Prasad
b) Jawaharlal nehru
c) Vallabhbhai patel
d) B.R. Ambedkar

144. The Indian state that was given just the status of associate state in 1974 and got the status of a full state in 1975 by the Amendments of the constitution is
a) Mizoram
b) Manipur
c) Sikkim
d) Tripura

145. The author of the book titled ‘planning for the poor’ is
a) B.S. Minhas
b) Y.K. Alagh
c) Jagadish Bhagwati
d) I.G. Patel

Adwitha Bhuvana Stuti H

Adwitha Bhuvana Stuti H

Adwitha Bhuvana Stuti G

Adwitha Bhuvana Stuti G

ELECTRICAL MACHINE DESIGN

1. For a soft magnetic material there will be
a) steeply rising magnetization curve.
b) relatively narrow and small hysteresis loop.
c) less energy loss per cycle of magnetization.
d) all the above.


2. Silicon content in iron lamination is kept within 5% as it
a) increases hysteresis loss.
b) increases cost.
c) makes the material brittle.
d) reduces the curie point.
ans: c

3. For under frequency operation the eddy current loss
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) remains unchanged.
d) cannot be predicted.
ans: a.

4. What is the suitable shape of plunger magnet to give almost flat force-stroke characteristics?
a) Flat faced .
b) Conical.
c) Stepped.
d) Tapered.
ans: d.

5. In a dc machine ” contraction coefficient” is used to take into account the reduction of
a) air-gap area due to armature slots.
b) iron losses in the teeth due to lower tooth density.
c) armature mmf due to armature slots.
d) torque due to ventilating duets.
ans: a

6. Carter’s coefficient is applicable for estimating
a) requirements of air-gap mmf.
b) flux distribution in air gap.
c) length of air gap.
d) no-load loss.
ans: a

7. A lap wound dc machine has 400 conductors and 8 poles. The voltage induced per conductor is 2 volts. The machine generates a voltage of
a) 100 V
b) 200 V
c) 400 V
d) 800 V
ans: a

8. The yoke of a dc machine
a) must be made of magnetic material.
b) should preferably be made of magnetic material but can be of non-magnetic material.
c) must be made of non-magnetic material.
d) is partially made of magnetic material and partially made of non-magnetic material.
ans: a.

9. The pole shoes of a dc machines
a) are always laminated.
b) are never laminated.
c) are sometimes laminated.
d) are partially laminated.
ans: a

10. Poles of a dc machines are often laminated to
a) reduce pulsation loss.
b) reduce armature reaction.
c) reduce iron weight.
d) dissipate more heat.
ans: a.

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MATERIALS

1. Total number of electrons that can be accommodated in various electron states in a valence band of a given solid is equal to
a) atomic number of the solid.
b) half the number of atoms in the solid.
c) the number of atoms in the solid.
d) twice the number of atoms in the solid.
ans: a.

2. Vacant lattice sites in the halide crystals cause
a) plastic deformation and ionic conductivity.
b) transparency and diffusion.
c) diffusion and ionic conductivity.
d) plastic deformation and transparency.
ans: c.

3. For which of the following materials , is the Hall coefficient zero?
a) Metal.
b) Insulator.
c) Intrinsic semiconductor.
d) Alloy.
ans: c.

4. Principle of Hall effect is used in the construction of which one of the following?
a) Ammeter.
b) Voltmeter.
c) Galvanometer.
d) Gauss meter.
ans: d.

5. According to the Wiedemann-Franz law the ratio of thermal conductivity of electrical conductivity of a conductor is
a) independent of temperature.
b) directly proportional to temperature.
c) inversely proportional to temperature.
d) inversely proportional to square of temperature.
ans: b.

6. The correct sequence of increasing order of electrical resistivity of the given materials is
a) diamond, doped germanium , silicon, gold.
b) gold , silicon, doped germanium , diamond.
c) gold , doped germanium , silicon, diamond.
d) gold , diamond , silicon, doped germanium.
ans: c.

7. What is the correct arrangement of the following alloys in the decreasing order of resistivity?
a) German silver- constantan- monel metal.
b) German silver-monel metal- constantan.
c) constantan-monel model- German silver.
d) constantan – German silver- monel metal.
ans: d.

8. In metals, resistivity is composed of two parts : one part is characteristic of the particular substance. The other part is due to
a) applied voltage.
b) crystal imperfections.
c) applied magnetic field.
d) supplied thermal energy.
ans: b.

9. Which one of the following is correct? As frequency increases, the surface resistance of metal
a) decreases.
b) increases.
c) remains unchanged.
d) varies in an unpredictable manner.
ans: b.

10. The conductivity of a conducting material on being subject to critical magnetic field changes to
a) normal state.
b) unstable state.
c) temperature-independent state.
d) temperature-dependent state.
ans: a.

CONTROL SYSTEMS

1. The most commonly used input signal in control system is
a) step function
b) ramp or velocity
c) accelerating function
d) all the above
ans: a

2. What is the characteristic of a good control system?
a) Sensitive to parameter variation
b) insensitive to input commands
c) Neither sensitive to parameter variation nor sensitive to input commands
d) Insensitive to parameter variation but sensitive to input commands
ans: d

3. Linear system obeys
a) principle of maximum power transfer
b) reciprocity principle
c) principle of superposition
d) all the above
ans: d

4. If a linear time invariant system is excited  by a true random signal like white noise, the output of the linear system will have which of the following properties ?
a) output will be a white noise
b) output will be periodic
c) output will not be random
d) output will be correlated or colored noise.
ans: c

5. A system can be completely described by a transfer if it is
a) nonlinear and continuous
b) linear and time-varying
c) non-linear and time-invariant
d) linear and time-invariant
ans: d

6. A function of one or more variables which conveys information on the nature of physical phenomenon called
a) noise
b) interference
c) system
d) signal
ans: d

7. If the initial conditions for a system are inherently zero , what does it physically mean?
a) The system is at rest but stores energy
b) The system is working but does not store energy
c) The system is at rest or no energy is stored in any of its parts
d) The system is working with zero reference input
ans: d

8. In a control system, the use of negative feedback
a) eliminates the chances of instability.
b) increases the reliability.
c) reduces the effects of disturbance and noise signals in the forward path.
d) increases the influence of variations of component parameters on the system performance.
ans: c

9. which one of the following effects in the system is NOT caused by negative feedback?
a) Reduction in gain
b) increase in bandwidth.
c) increase in distortion.
d) reduction in output impedance.
ans: c

10. In a speed control system , output rate feedback is used to
a) limit the speed of motor.
b) limit the acceleration of the motor
c) reduce the damping of the system
d) increase the gain margin.
ans: c

AC MACHINES

1. The basic function of a transformer is to change
a) the level of the voltage.
b) the power level
c) the power factor
d) the frequency
ans: a

2. In an ordinary transformer which of the following does not change
a) voltage
b) current
c) frequency
d) all the above
ans: c

3. The efficiency of a power transformer is around
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 95%
ans: d

4. An ideal transformer does not change
a) voltage
b) power
c) current
d) none of the above
ans: b

5. For an ideal transformer the winding’s should have
a) maximum resistance on primary side and least resistance on secondary side
b) least resistance on primary side and maximum resistance on the secondary side
c) equal resistance on primary and secondary sides
d) no ohmic resistance on either side
ans: d

6. The core flux in transformer depends mainly on
a) supply voltage
b) supply voltage and frequency
c) supply voltage, frequency and load
d) supply voltage and load but independent of frequency
ans: b

7. A transformer steps up the voltage by a factor 100. The ratio of current in the primary to that in the secondary is
a) 1
b) 100
c) 0.01
d) 0.1
ans: b

8. If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased by 50% and the frequency is reduced 50% , the maximum core flux density will
a) change to three times the original value.
b) change to 1.5 times the original value
c) change to 0.5 times the original value
d) remain the same as the original value
ans: a

9. If the supply frequency of a transformer is increased , keeping the supply voltage constant, then
a) both magnetizing component and core loss component of current will decrease
b) both magnetizing component and core loss component of current will increase
c) magnetizing component of current will increase while core loss component of current will decrease
d) magnetizing component of current will decrease while core loss component of current will increase.
ans: a

10. Primary winding of a transformer comprises of two identical winding’s in parallel. If one winding’s is removed , magnetizing current will be
a) halved
b) the same
c) double
d) increased four times
ans: c

11. The core flux of a practical transformer with a resistance load
a) is strictly constant  with load changes
b) increases linearly with load
c) increases as the square root of the load
d) decreases with increase of load
ans: a

12. In a transformer , zero voltage regulation at full load is
a) not possible
b) possible at unity power factor load
c) possible at leading power factor load
d) possible at lagging power factor load
ans: c

13. A single phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90% at full load and unity power factor. Efficiency at half load at the same power factor is
a) 86.7%
b) 88.26 %
c) 88.9%
d) 87.8%
ans: d

14. The main purpose of performing open-circuit on a transformer is to measure its
a) copper loss
b) core loss
c) total loss
d) insulation resistance
ans: b

15. The desirable properties of transformer core material are
a) low permeability and low hysteresis loss
b) high permeability and high hysteresis loss
c) high permeability and low hysteresis loss
d) low permeability and high hysteresis loss
ans: c

16. The all -day efficiency of a transformer depends primarily on
a) its copper loss
b) the amount of load
c) duration of load
d) both b and c
ans: d

17. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design
a) reduces the weight per KVA
b) increases the weight per KVA
c) has no relation with the weight of transformer
d) none of the above
ans: a

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SELENIUM — AUTOMATION TESTING TOOL

SELENIUM IDE


The Selenium IDE is an add-on to FireFox.
At basic level it allows us to

1. Record user actions when browsing in FireFox.
2. Replay recorded scripts.
3. Convert recorded scripts into programming languages such as Java, Ruby, and more.
4. Add verification and synchronization steps to the script during the recording process.

The IDE is an excellent support tool for writing automated test scripts in Selenium and it gets better with every release.

JAVA


Java is a programming language created by Sun. The Java that we will be using in selenium is very simple. If your work environment uses a different language e.g. Ruby , .Net , Phython. Chances are that you will be able to use Selenium-RC in that language. But I have chosen Java because it is the language that Selenium Server is written in. It is also mature and very well supported by IDEs ( Integrated Development Environments) which really make it simple for a beginner to learn.

ECLIPSE

Eclipse is free and open-source IDE which supports many programming languages.
Out of the box it provides many useful support aids for beginning java programmers.

1. Wizards for code creation .
2. code completion .
3. automatically fix common coding errors.

It is also simple to install , incredibly popular among developers, and has a lot of additional plugins that you can use to increase your productivity .

SELENIUM- RC 


Selenium Remote Control is the server version of selenium. You write your tests using client APIs and these communicate with the server. The server then ‘runs’ your actions for you in the browser and reports the results back to your client.

Using selenium-RC allows you to write Automated tests in any supported programming language.
Tests written in this way are easier to maintain, more robust and easier to collaborate on as a team.

MAHA SHIVARATRI

DUSSERA

DIWALI

UGADI

SANKRANTHI

HOLI

DC MACHINES

1. The developed electromagnetic force and/or torque in electro mechanical energy conversion system act in a direction that tends
a) to increase the stored energy at constant flux
b) to decrease the stored energy at constant flux
c) to decrease the coenergy at constant mmf.
d) to decrease the stored energy at constant mmf
ans: b

2. For a linear electromagnetic circuit, the following statement is true
a) Field energy is equal to the coenergy
b) Field energy is greater than the coenergy
c) Field energy is lesser than the coenergy
d) Coenergy is zero
ans: a

3. In an electromechanical energy conversion device, the developed torque depends upon
a) stator field strength and torque angle
b) stator field and rotor field strengths
c) stator field and rotor field strengths and torque angle
d) stator field only
ans: c

4. In electro mechanical energy conversion devices , a small air gap is left between the stator and rotor in order to
a)  reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
b) increase flux density in the air gap
c) permit mechanical clearance
d) none of the above
ans: c

5. A rotating electrical machine having its self inductance of both stator and rotor winding’s, independent of rotor position will definitely not develop
a) starting torque
b) synchronizing torque
c) hysteresis torque
d) reluctance torque
ans: b

6. A circular metallic disc is placed in a vertical magnetic field of constant induction in the downward direction. If the disc is rotated in a horizontal plane , the emf induced will be
a) zero
b) constant independent of disc size
c) increasing radically in the outward direction
d) decreasing radically in the outward direction
ans: a

7. The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar field is
a) dc
b) ac
c) dc and ac both
d) none of these
ans: b

POWER SYSTEMS

1. For low head and high discharge the hydraulic turbine used is
a) Francis turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Pelton wheel
d) none of the above
ans: b

2. A Kaplan turbine is
a) In ward flow, impulse turbine
b) Outward flow reaction turbine
c) A high head mixed flow turbine
d) Low head axial flow turbine
ans: d

3. An hydro-graph indicates
a) The discharge at any time during the period under consideration
b) The max. and min. runoff during the period
c) The average run off during the period
d) all the above
ans: d

4. As compared to steam-station ,hydro-electric stations have :
a) More cost of installation
b) Less maintenance and fuel cost
c) both (a) and (b)
d) Low depreciation charges.
ans: c

5. The rotor used in alternators of hydro-electric station is
a) Cylindrical rotor
b) Salient pole rotor
c) Non salient pole rotor
d) Round rotor with ac excitation
ans: b

6. The cost of fuel transportation is minimum in ______ plant.
a) Thermal
b) Nuclear
c) Hydro
d) Diesel
ans: c

7. Which of the following generating stations has minimum running cost.
a) Thermal
b) Nuclear
c) Hydro
d) none of these
ans: c

8. Which of the following plants have the highest capital cost
a) Nuclear
b) Diesel
c) Thermal
d) none
ans: a

9. For harnessing low variable water heads, the suitable hydraulic turbine with high percentage of reaction and runner adjustable vanes is
a) Kaplan
b) Francis
c) Pelton
d) Impeller
ans: a

10. In a Thermal power plant, the feed water coming to the economizer is heated using
a) H.P. steam
b) L.P. steam
c) direct heat in the furnace
d) flue gases
ans: d

11. In thermal power plants, the pressure in the working fluid cycle is developed by
a) Condenser
b) Super heater
c) feed water
d) turbine
ans: d

12. Which material is used in controlling chain reaction in av nuclear reactor?
a) Thorium
b) Heavy water
c) Boron
d) Beryllium
ans: b

13. When a fixed amount of power is transmitted, the efficiency of transmission increases when
a) Voltage decreases, power factor remains constant
b) voltage increases, power factor increase
c) voltage decreases, power factor decreases
d) voltage constant , power factor decreases
ans: b

14. The surge impedance of 0.400km long OH line is 400 ohm for 200 km length of the same line , the surge impedance will be
a) 200 ohm
b) 800 ohm
c) 400 ohm
d) 100 ohm
ans: c

15. The insulation level of a 400 EHV OH transmission line is decided on the basis of
a) lightening voltage
b) switching over voltage
c) corona inception voltage
d) radio and TV interference
ans: b

16. Bundled conductors are employed to improve the
a) appearance of the transmission line
b) mechanical stability of the line
c) decrease system stability
d) increase the short circuit current
ans: c

17. An OH line having a surge impedance of 400 ohm is connected in series with an underground cable having a surge impedance of 100 ohm . If a surge of 50 Kv travels from the line end towards the line cable junctions, the value of the transmitted voltage wave at the junction is
a) 30 Kv
b) 20 Kv
c) 80 Kv
d) -30 Kv
ans: b

19. The load carrying capability of a long AC transmission line is
a) always limited by the conductor size
b) limited by stability considerations
c) reduced at low anbrent temperatures
d) decreased by the use of bundled conductors of single conductors.
ans: b

20. Corona losses are minimized when
a) corona size is reduced
b) smooth conductor is released
c) sharp points are provided in the hardware
d) current density in conductors is reduced
ans: b

21. The corona loss on a particular system at 50HZ is 1kw/km/ph. The rocona loss at 60 HZ is
a) 1kw/ph/km
b) 0-83 kw/km/ph
c) 1.2 kw/km/ph
d) 1.13 kw/km/ph
ans: d

22. A loss-less radial transmission line with surge impedance loading
a) takes negative VAR at sending end and zero VAR at receiving end
b) take positive VAR at sending end and zero VAR at receiving end
c) has flat voltage profile and unity power factor at all points along it
d) has sending end voltage higher than receiving end voltage and unity power factor at sending end
ans: c

23. Consider along , two wire line composed of solid round conductors. The radius of both conductors is 0.25 cm and the distance between there centers is 1m . If this distance is doubled, then the inductance per unit length
a) doubles
b) halves
c) increase but does not double
d) decreases but not halve
ans: c

24. A long wire composed of a smooth round conductor runs above and parallel to the ground. A high voltage exists between the conductor and the ground . The max electric stress occurs at.
a) the upper surface of the conductor
b) the lower surface of the conductor
c) the ground surface
d) none of the above
ans: b

25. Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage OH transmission lines to
a) reduce transmission line losses
b) increase mechanical strength of the line
c) reduce corona
d) reduce sag
ans: c

ANALOG ELECTRONICS

1.The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it
a) has to dissipate maximum power
b) has to supply the charge carriers
c) is the first region of the transistor
d) must posses low resistance
ans: b

2. An emitter is a bipolar junction transistor is doped much more heavily than the base as it increases the
a) emitter efficiency
b) Base transport factor
c) forward current gain
d) all the above
ans: d

3. The impurity commonly used for realizing the base region of a silicon n-p-n transistor is
a) Gallium
b) indium
c) Boron
d) Phosphorus
ans: c

4. In a properly biased N-P-N transistor , most of the electrons from the emitter
a) pass to the collector through the base
b) recombine with holes in the base
c) recombine with holes in emitter itself
d) are stopped by the function better
ans: a

5. For an npn bipolar transistor, what is the main stream of current in the base region ?
a) Drift of holes
b) Diffusion of holes
c) Drift of electrons
d) Diffusion of electrons
ans: d

6. The DC current gain of BJT is 50. Assuming that the emitter injection efficiency is 0.995, the base transport factor is
a) 0.980
b) 0.985
c) 0.990
d) 0.995
ans: b

7. If for a silicon npn transistors , the base-to-emitter voltage is 0.7 V and the collector-to-base Voltage is 0.2 V , then the transistor is operating in the
a) normal active mode
b) saturation mode
c) inverse active mode
d) cutoff mode
ans: a

8. Ebers-model of a transistor represents two diodes
a) in series
b) in parallel
c) back-to-back
d) none of the above
ans: c

9. In a transistor , the reverse saturation current Ico
a) doubles for every 10 deg/C rise in temperature
b) doubles for every 1 deg/C rise in temperature
c)  increases linearly with temperature
d) decreases linearly with temperature
ans: a

10. The phenomenon known as “Early Effect” in a bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by
a) electron hole recombination at the time
b) the reverse biasing of the base-collector junction
c) the forward biasing of emitter-base junction
d) the early removal of stored base charge during saturation-to-cutoff switching
ans: b

11. Notch is also called as
a) band-pass filter
b) low-pass filter
c) high-pass filter
d) narrow-band reject filter
ans: d

12. The filter which exhibits ac equiripple in the pass-band and monotonic characteristic in stop band is
a) Buttorworth
b) Chebyshev
c) Bessel
d) Elliptic
ans: a

13. A multiplier which can accept input voltages of either polarity and can produce output voltage of both polarities is called
a) Bi-quadrant multiplier
b) four quadrant multiplier
c) two quadrant multiplier
d) one quadrant multiplier
ans: c

14. A multiplier is derived using two logarithmic amplifiers and and antilog amplifier . One more section required is
a) multiplier
b) adder
c) subtractor
d) divider
ans: b

15. A frequency multiplier usually operates in
a) push-pull
b) class A
c) class B
d) class C
ans: d

16. FSK demodulation is an application of
a) PLL
b) timer
c) BPF
d) none of the above
ans: a

17. An oscillator whose frequency is changed by a variable dc voltage is known as
a) a crystal oscillator
b) a VCO
c)  an Armstrong oscillator
d) a piezoelectric device
ans: b

18. The integrated circuit chip NE/SE 566 is a
a) Schmitt trigger
b) power amplifier
c) video amplifier
d) voltage controlled oscillator
ans: d

19. For a step input , the output of an integrator is
a) a pulse
b) a triangular waveform
c) a spike
d) a ramp
ans: d

20. The damping factor of a second order active low pass filter to give butterworth response is
a) 1.732
b) 1.414
c) 0.707
d) none of the above
ans: b

AC BASICS AND NETWORKS

1. The rms value of a sine wave is 100 A. Its peak value is
a) 70.7 A
b) 141 A
c) 150 A
d) 282.8 A
ans: 2

2. The rms value of the resultant current in a wire which carries a dc current of 10 A and a sinusoidal alternating current of peak value 20 A is
a) 14.1 A
b) 17.3 A
c) 22.4 A
d) none of the above
ans: b

3. A boiler at home is switched on to the AC mains supplying power at 230 V, 50 Hz. The frequency of instantaneous power consumed is
a) 0 Hz
b) 50 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 150 Hz
ans: c

4. Unit of inductive reactance is
a) Henry
b) millihenry
c) Wb
d) Ohm
ans: d

5. A 10 mH inductor carries a sinusoidal current of 1A  rms at a frequency of 50 Hz. The average power dissipated by the indicator is
a) 0 W
b) 0.25 W
c) 0.5 W
d) 1.0 W
ans: a

6. A circuit component that opposes the change in circuit voltage is
a) resistance
b) capacitance
c) inductance
d) all of the above
ans: b

7. The reactance offered by a capacitor to AC of frequency 50 Hz is 10 ohm. If the frequency is increased to 100 Hz , reactance becomes
a) 20 ohm
b) 5 ohm
c) 2.5 ohm
d) 30 ohm
ans: b

8. The pf of a practical inductor is
a) unity
b) zero
c) lagging
d) leading
ans: c

9. The power factor of an ordinary electric bulb is
a) zero
b) unity
c) slightly more than unity
d) slightly less than unity
ans: d

10. A 2-terminal network consists of one of the RLC elements. The element is connected to ans ac supply. The current through the element is I A. When an inductor is inserted in series between the source and the element , the current through the element becomes 2I A . What is the element?
a) A resistor
b) An inductor
c) A capacitor
d) cannot be a single element
ans: c

11. Unit of reactive power is
a) VA
b) watt
c) VAR
d) ohm
ans: c

12. An ac source of 200V rms supplies active power of 600 W and reactive power of 800 VAR. The rms current drawn from the source is
a) 10 A
b) 5 A
c) 3.75 A
d) 2.5 A
ans: b

13. With the increase in applied frequency , the dielectric loss in a material will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains constant
d) becomes zero
ans: a

14. In a ac series RLC circuit , the voltage across R and L is 20 V, the voltage across L and C is 9 V and voltage and voltage across RLC is 15 V , What is the voltage across C?
a) 7V
b) 12 V
c) 16 V
d) 21 V
ans: a

15. The quantity (2 + j9) represents the resistive and reactive components of current drawn by an ac circuit. The phase angle between the applied voltage and current is
a) 41.4′
b) 53.13′
c) 36.87′
d) 46.86′
ans: c

16. Under the condition resonance in R-L-C series circuit, the pf of the circuit is
a) 0.5 lagging
b) 0.5 leading
c) unity
d) zero
ans: c

17. In a series RLC circuit at resonance , the magnitude of voltage developed across the capacitor
a) is always zero
b) can never be greater that the input voltage
c) can be greater than the input voltage however,  it is 90 degrees out of phase with the input voltage
d) can be greater than the input voltage and is in phase with the input voltage.
ans: c

18. A series R-L-C circuit , the maximum voltage across the capacitor occurs at a frequency
a) double the resonant frequency
b) equal to resonant frequency
c) below the resonant frequency
d) none of the above
ans: c

19. In a series R-L-C circuit , the voltage across inductance will be maximum
a) at resonant frequency
b) just after resonant frequency
c) just before resonant frequency
d) just before and after resonant frequency
ans: b

20. For a series R-L-C circuit , the power factor at the lower power frequency is
a) 0.5 lagging
b) 0.5 leading
c) unity
d) 0.707 leading
ans: d

21. Q-factor of as series R-L-C circuit possessing resonant frequency of 10 Hz and bandwidth of 5 Hz is
a) 0.5
b) 2
c) 2.5
d) 50
ans: b

22. When Q-factor of a circuit is high , then
a) power factor of the circuit is high
b) impedance of the circuit is high
c) bandwidth is large
d) none of the above
ans: b

23. A high  Q coil has
a) large bandwidth
b) high losses
c) low losses
d) flat response
ans: c

24. A coil is tuned to resonance at 500 kHz with a resonating capacitor of 36 pf at 250 kHz , the resonance is obtained with resonating capacitor of 160 pf .What is the self-capacitance of the coil?
a) 2.66 pf
b) 5.33 pf
c) 8 pf
d) 10.66 pf
ans: b

25. A R-L-C resonant circuit has a resonance frequency of 1.5 MHz and a bandwidth of 10kHz . If c= 150pf, then the effective resistance of the circuit will be
a)  29.5  ohm
b) 14.75 ohm
c) 9.4 ohm
d) 4.7ohm
ans: d

adwitha bhuvana stuti

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DC BASICS AND NETWORKS AND ELECTROMAGNETIC THEORY

1. Two wires A and B of the same material and length l and 2l have radius r and 2r respectively. The ratio of their resistance will be
a) 1:1
b) 1:2
c) 1:4
d) 1:8
ans: a

2. Pure metals generally have
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
 ans: b

 3. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.0008’C. If the resistance of the wire is 8 Ohm at 0’C , what is the resistance of the wire at 100’C?
a) 8.64 Ohm
b) 8.08 Ohm
c) 7.92 Ohm
d) 7.20 Ohm
ans: a

 4. The insulation resistance of a cable of length is 1 MegaOhm.For a length of 100 km of same cable, the insulation resistance will be
a) 1 MegaOhm
b) 10 MegaOhm
c) 0.1 MegaOhm
d) 0.01 MegaOhm
ans: c

 5. The hot resistance of the filament of a bulb is higher than the cold resistance because the temperature coefficient of the filament is
a) negative
b) infinite
c) zero
d) positive
ans: d

 6. Four resistances 80 Ohm, 50 Ohm , 25 Ohm and R are connected in parallel. Current through 25 Ohm resistance is 4 A.Total current of the supply is 10 A. The value of R will be
a) 66.66 Ohm
b) 40.25 Ohm
c) 36.36 Ohm
d) 76.56 Ohm
ans: c

7. Three parallel resistive branches are connected across a DC supply .What will be the ratio of the branch currents I1:I2:I3 if the branch resistances are in the ratio R1:R2:R3::2:4:6 ?
a) 3:2:6
b) 2:4:6
c) 6:3:2
d) 6:2:4
ans: c.

8. Two resistors R1and R2 give combined resistance of 4.5 Ohm when in series and 1 Ohm when in parallel , the resistances are
a) 2 ohm and 2.5 ohm
b) 1 ohm and 3.5 ohm
c) 1.5 ohm and 3 ohm
d) 4 and 0.5 ohm
ans: c

9. How are 500 Ohm resistors connected so as to give an effective resistance of 750 Ohm?
a) Three resistors of 500 Ohm each , in parallel
b) Three resistors of 500 Ohm each , in series
c) Two resistors of 500 Ohm each , in parallel
d) Two resistors of 500 Ohm, each , in parallel and the combination in series with another 500 Ohm resistor.
ans: d

10. Which of the following does not use heating effect of electric current?
a) Electric furnace
b) Geyser
c) Electric Iron
d) Vacuum Cleaner
ans: d

11. Which of the following is not equivalent to Watts?
a) amperes X volts
b) amperes X amperes X volt
c) amperes/ volt
d) joules per second
ans: c

12. A network consists of linear resistors and ideal voltage source. If the value of the resistors are doubled , then voltage across each resistor is
a) halved
b) doubled
c) increased four tines
d) not changed
ans: d

13. Three resistances each of R Ohm are connected to form a triangle. The resistance between any two terminals will be
a) R ohm
b) 3/2 ohm
c) 3R ohm
d) 2/3 ohm
ans: d

14. When an electric current flows through a conductor, its temperature rises. This is because of
a) mutual collisions between metal atoms
b) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
c) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
d) none of the above
ans: c

15. Two heaters , rated at 1000 W , each 250 V are connected in series across a 250 V , 50 Hz AC mains. The total power drawn from the supply would be
a) 1000 W
b) 500 W
c) 250 W
d) 2000 W
ans: b

16. Two incandescent light bulbs of 40 W and 60 W rating are connected in series across the mains. Then
a) the bulbs together consume 100 W
b) the bulbs together consume 50 W
c) the 60 W bulb glows brighter
d) the 40 W bulb glows brighter
ans : d

17. How many 200 W/ 220 V incandescent lamps connected in series would consume the same total power as a single 100W/ 220V incandescent lamp?
a) not possible
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
ans: b

18. A 100W bulb burns on an average of 10 hours a day for one week. The weekly consumption of energy will be
a) 7
b) 70
c) 0.7
d) none of the above
ans: a

19. A network has 4 nodes and 3 independent loops. What is the number of branches in the network?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) none of the above
ans: b

20. An electric circuit with 10 nodes and 7 branches will have
a) 3 loop equations
b) 4 loop equations
c) 7 loop equations
d) none of the above
ans: b

21. A network has 10 nodes and 17 branches. . The number of different node pair voltage would be
a) 7
b) 9
c) 45
d) none of the above
ans: b

HR INTERVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1.  Tell me about yourself ?

A) You have to tell only about yourself answer should be short and simple first

a. Tell your name and where are you from just tell only the place 

    Ex: My name is ——- and I am from ——-.

b. Tell your highest qualification and work experience (if any)

    Ex: I am a b.tech graduate from college name  and tell only how much experience in the field name

c. Tell your strengths 

    Ex: Tell your achievements in college ,  in your company , 

d. Tell about your family

     Ex: My father is employee , mother is housewife, i have one brother and one sister.

2. Tell me about your strengths?

A. Tell all your positive qualities with examples from your previous work experience

3. Why do you want this job?

or

4. Why you want to work for our company?

or 

5.What is your dream company?

or

6.What attracted you to this company?

or 

6. What do you know about this company?

A)

      1. I want to see myself in this position for which ever you are applying.

      2. Your company has world class environment 

      3. Your company is a fortune 500 company

      4. Carrier growth is good in your company

      5. The company growth is increased at a faster rate

      6. Your company is employee friendly , some of my friends working here suggested me openings are    

           there in our company , to work for your company is my aspiration .

      7. Tell about the company profile and ranking and about the work environment.

7.  Why should i hire you? 

A) Tell about your work experience, your skills in the fields and achievements and rewards in your previous  

     company. Prove yourself that you are the best person for him to hire you

8. Are you willing to relocate?

A) Yes.

9. Work or Money?

A. As per client requirements

10. Hard Work or Smart Work?

A) If i have the knowledge about the project i can use my smart work and complete the work before the  given time 

    If i do not have the knowledge about the project i will work hard and learn the things quickly and i will   complete before the given time as early as possible.

11. Notice period?

A) I already had a informed my HR regarding this job interview i will join your company tell me the date when i have to join.

12. If you have any issue in the office whom will u report first?

A) I will share with my leaders.

AUTOMATION TESTING

AUTOMATION TESTING

Making the Manual Testing process automatic is called Automation Testing
or
It is a process of identifying various features to be re-tested in the modified versions developing and executing the scripts to validate the same is called Automation Testing.

BENEFITS OF AUTOMATION TESTING
1. Faster
2. Accurate
3. Repetitive
4. Re-Usable
5.
the automation is additional support for testing activities not a replacement for manual testing.

DECIDING FACTORS FOR AUTOMATION TESTING
1. Program-ability
2. Frequency of testing
3. Cost

TOOL SELECTION CRITERIA
We consider the following parameters for choosing automation testing tool
1.Cost
2.Features offered by the tool
3.Performance
4.Technology supported by the tool
5.Environments
6.Portability
7.Maintainability
8.Vendor Support (HP)

INTRODUCTION TO QTP
QTP is a functional regression testing tool introduced by Astra Incorporation later by Mercury , now it is a product of HP.

ADD-IN
Add-in is a communication software that contains a set of pre-defined methods which enables QTP to automate various Operations on the objects present in your application.

Q.How QTP executes a test?
A.
When you run a test qtp execute the script step by step while executing a particular step qtp goes to depository correct the properties of the object then try to identify when the object is identified then qtp performs the specified actions if not qtp throws error “cannot identify the object”.

NOTE: by default qtp wait for maximum of 20 seconds to identify the object

VB SCRIPT
VB script is the scripting language offered by Microsoft which is default with qtp tool

VARIABLE
A Variable is a memory address location that holds a value.There are two types of variables
             a. Scalar Variable
             b. Array Variable
Again both variables are of two types
a.Implicit
b.Explicit

VB supports both Implicit and Explicit variables

NOTE: you can declare variables using either Dim or Public or Private statements

OPTION  EXPLICIT
If Option Explicit is specified every variable must be declared before you use it.i.e, we can force VB script do not allow Implicit variables by specifying Option Explicit

DATATYPE IN VB SCRIPT
VB script is having only one data type called variant which allows any type of data we no need to specify data type while declaring a variable.

While—– End
while loop executes a set of statements for multiple iterations when the conditions written true if condition written false loop will exist

Do—- Loop
It is a flexible loop you can execute a set of statements for the true value written by the condition and also for the false written by the conditon

For loop
For loop is used to execute a set of statements for specific number of times

For Each
It is used to execute a block of statements for each item present in the array

Set Secure
It is used to supply encoded string such as password, cvv number etc in the specified text boxes.

RHYMES BY SANGA MITRA

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kids

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electrical engineering

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Steam Power Plants

Steam Power Plants

Single Phase Transformers

Single Phase Transformers

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Ignited Minds

Ignited Minds

What is it that we as a nation are missing?
Why, given all our skills, resources and talents, do we settle so often for the ordinary instead of striving to be the best? At the heart of Ignited Minds is an irresistible premise: that people do have the power, through hard work, to realize their dream of a truly good life. Kalam’s vision document of aspiration and hope motivates us to unleash the dormant energy within India and guide the country to greatness.

You Are Born To Blossom

You Are Born To Blossom

About The Book

You Are Born To Blossom is an account of Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam’s vision for a better India with the need for fully utilizing the education and technology sector to achieve his aim of a new developed India. Using a tree as a metaphor, he states that different approaches towards learning need to be implemented for different age groups and there is a dire need for quality education and guidance to reach the footsteps of Indian schools. Dr. Kalam addresses these issues as he recounts his experiences as a schoolboy.

The other theme prevailing in the book is social transformation – where the communication and information sector can help mine rural talent. He talks about how the development of divergent individual talents can help in bringing about a change, taking into consideration the social and moral values of the nation.

You Are Born To Blossom comprises of eight chapters that talk about many core issues related to society – like personifying the knowledge that’s prevalent around the world, the standard of governance in public institutions and how to safeguard their sanctity. It also talks about adult working life and opportunities for senior citizens past the age of 50. It also takes into account the contributions of a number of Indian artists and scientists. ‘There is no age to blossom,” is the lingering concept throughout the book and Dr. Kalam calls for a scientific mind molded by conscience and consensus, while taking into consideration Indian morality and values. You Are Born To Blossom was published in 2008 and is available in paperback.

Reignited: Scientific Pathways to a Brighter Future

Reignited: Scientific Pathways to a Brighter Future

Will robots take over the world? When will we meet aliens? How are memories stored inside the brain?
Join A.P.J. Kalam on a fascinating quest to explore the realm of science and technology,its extraordinary achievements and its impact on our lives in the days to come. Co-written with Srijan Pal Singh, this book features exciting and cutting edge career paths in areas such as robotics, aeronautics, neurosciences, pathology, paleontology and material sciences in other words, careers that are going to make a difference in the future. The result of extensive research, this book offers a plethora of ground-breaking ideas that will make youngsters think out of the box.

Turning Point: A Journey through Challenges

Turning Point: A Journey through Challenges

Turning Points, available in paperback, is the sequel to Wings of Fire, which is an autobiography of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam. But this book talks more about the dreams and visions that Kalam had for the development of India as a country and very less about the person himself. This book takes off from the point in Kalam’s life when he became the President of India. From being sworn in as the President and serving his term in the office at the capital, to the endeavors he took up to make his term fruitful, this book describes it all in detail. The book, Turning Points, describes how Kalam faced all the challenges he encountered during his term which began in 2002 and lasted till 2007. This span of time has been portrayed as an eventful golden time for India. Kalam’s perseverant efforts to use the office to its optimum has been beautifully described. He made the people and the government concentrate on major issues that were important for the progress and welfare of India. Turning Points: A Journey Through Challenges was published on 1st June, 2012. It talks about the various programs initiated by Kalam like PURA. It made attempts in making the rural areas a part of the growth seen in the general economic sector. Kalam tried to see technological growth in the villages, as he dreamed about the vision he had in mind for India for the new millennium.

Key Features:

• This book is a sequel to Wings of Fire: An Autobiography.

Wings of Fire: An Autobiography

Wings of Fire: An Autobiography

Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam, the son of a little-educated boat-owner in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu, had an unparalleled career as a defence scientist, culminating in the highest civilian award of India, the Bharat Ratna. As chief of the country’s defence research and development programme, Kalam demonstrated the great potential for dynamism and innovation that existed in seemingly moribund research establishments. This is the story of Kalam’s rise from obscurity and his personal and professional struggles, as well as the story of Agni, Prithvi, Akash, Trishul and Nag-missiles that have become household names in India and that have raised the nation to the level of a missile power of international reckoning. This is also the saga of independent India’s struggle for technological self-sufficiency and defensive autonomy-a story as much about politics, domestic and international, as it is about science.

Herbalife Personalized Protein Powder

Herbalife Personalized Protein Powder

• Protein supplement helps you feel full and increase metabolism.
• Includes Soy Protein isolate, Whey protein Concentrate and Starch.
• High quality protein to help keep you from getting hungry.
• Assist with good nutrition, fitness and health goals.

Herbalife Afresh Energy Drink Mix – Lemon – 50 gms

Herbalife Afresh Energy Drink Mix – Lemon – 50 gms

• Rich in antioxidants
• Enjoy this hot or cold any time anywhere
• 0% sugar

Herbalife Formula 1 Shake 500g Weight Loss – Vanilla

Herbalife Formula 1 Shake 500g Weight Loss – Vanilla

• Lose Weight: 2 Shakes + 1 Normal Meal
• Gain Weight: 3 Shakes + 3 Normal Meals
• Maintain Weight: 1 Shake + 2 Normal Meals
• Low in calories only 220 calories per serving when mixed with 250ml skim milk
• Herbalife product is an easily absorbed source of quality nutrition

FUNNY BABY VIDEOS

Maths Table of 4 for kids

Math Table of 3 for kids

Math Table of 2 for kids

Ayur Herbal Skin Toner 200 ml

Ayur Herbal Skin Toner 200 ml

• Enriched with aloe vera, rose water and natural moisturizers it hydrate, minimize pores size and balance pH level of skin.
• Keeps your skin firm and fresh. A must after cleansing.

Ayur Herbal Moisturizer, 200ml

Ayur Herbal Moisturizer, 200ml